(a) When an order in a civil action has been entered, the court that rendered the same may order a person alleged to be guilty of indirect contempt of such order to appear and show cause why such person should not be held in contempt if there is filed a motion requesting an order to appear and show cause which is accompanied by an affidavit specifically setting forth the facts constituting the alleged violation.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (e), the order to appear and show cause shall be served upon the party allegedly in contempt by the sheriff or some other person appointed by the court for such purpose. Such order shall state the time and place where the person is to appear and shall be accompanied by a copy of the affidavit provided for in subsection (a). The court shall hear the matter at the time specified in the order, and upon proper showing, may extend the time so as to give the accused a reasonable opportunity to purge oneself of the contempt. If the court determines that a person is guilty of contempt such person shall be punished as the court shall direct.

(c) If, after proper service of the order to appear and show cause, the person served shall not appear in court as ordered, or if the court finds at a hearing held on motion of a party to the civil action that the person allegedly in contempt is secreting oneself to avoid the process of the court, the court may issue a bench warrant commanding that the person be brought before the court to answer for contempt. When such person is brought before the court, the court shall proceed as provided in subsection (b). The court may make such orders concerning the release of the person pending the hearing as the court deems proper.

(d) The provisions of this section shall apply to both criminal and civil contempts, but in the case of a criminal contempt the court on its own motion may cause the motion and affidavit provided for in subsection (a) to be filed.

(e) In cases involving an alleged violation of a restraining order issued pursuant to subsection (a)(2) of K.S.A. 23-2707, and amendments thereto, if the affidavit filed pursuant to subsection (a) alleges physical abuse in violation of the court’s order, the court immediately may issue a bench warrant and proceed as provided in subsection (c).

(f) If a person is found guilty of contempt in a child support enforcement proceeding, including an assignment of child support rights to the commissioner of juvenile justice and the evidence shows that the person is or may be authorized to practice a profession by a licensing body as defined in K.S.A. 74-146, and amendments thereto, the court, in addition to any other remedies, may order that a notice pursuant to subsection (a) of K.S.A. 74-147, and amendments thereto, be served on the licensing body. If the person found guilty of contempt as provided in this subsection is a licensed attorney, the court may file a complaint with the disciplinary administrator if the licensing agency is the Kansas supreme court, or the appropriate bar counsel’s office if the licensee practices in another state.

(g) If a person is found guilty of contempt in a child support enforcement proceeding, including an assignment of child support rights to the commissioner of juvenile justice, in an amount equal to or greater than the amount of support payable for six months or the obligor has been ordered by the court to pay a sum certain each month toward the liquidation of the arrearages and the obligor has substantially failed to abide by that order, the court may restrict the obligor’s driver’s license. Such restriction may include, but not be limited to, driving to, from and during the course of such person’s employment. The court may order the public office, as defined in K.S.A. 23-3102, and amendments thereto, to contact the division of vehicles of the department of revenue to restrict the obligor’s driver’s license as indicated in the court order until further order of the court.

(h) The court shall not recognize a motion to issue nor order in a civil or criminal action a contempt citation against any person who reports or publishes the information that a gag order has been issued by the court.

The following definitions shall apply when the words and phrases defined are used in this code, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(a) “Act” includes a failure or omission to take action.

(b) “Another” means a person or persons as defined in this code other than the person whose act is claimed to be criminal.

(c) “Conduct” means an act or a series of acts and the accompanying mental state.

(d) “Conviction” includes a judgment of guilt entered upon a plea of guilty.

(e) “Deception” means knowingly creating or reinforcing a false impression, including false impressions as to law, value, intention or other state of mind. “Deception” as to a person’s intention to perform a promise shall not be inferred from the fact alone that such person did not subsequently perform the promise. Falsity as to matters having no pecuniary significance, or puffing by statements unlikely to deceive reasonable persons, is not “deception”.

(f) “Deprive permanently” means to:

(1) Take from the owner the possession, use or benefit of property, without an intent to restore the same;

(2) retain property without intent to restore the same or with intent to restore it to the owner only if the owner purchases or leases it back, or pays a reward or other compensation for its return; or

(3) sell, give, pledge or otherwise dispose of any interest in property or subject it to the claim of a person other than the owner.

(g) “Distribute” means the actual or constructive transfer from one person to another of some item whether or not there is an agency relationship. “Distribute” includes, but is not limited to, sale, offer for sale, furnishing, buying for, delivering, giving, or any act that causes or is intended to cause some item to be transferred from one person to another. “Distribute” does not include acts of administering, dispensing or prescribing a controlled substance as authorized by the pharmacy act of the state of Kansas, the uniform controlled substances act, or otherwise authorized by law.

(h) “DNA” means deoxyribonucleic acid.

(i) “Domestic violence” means an act or threatened act of violence against a person with whom the offender is involved or has been involved in a dating relationship, or an act or threatened act of violence against a family or household member by a family or household member. “Domestic violence” also includes any other crime committed against a person or against property, or any municipal ordinance violation against a person or against property, when directed against a person with whom the offender is involved or has been involved in a dating relationship or when directed against a family or household member by a family or household member. For the purposes of this definition:

(1) “Dating relationship” means a social relationship of a romantic nature. In addition to any other factors the court deems relevant, the trier of fact may consider the following when making a determination of whether a relationship exists or existed: Nature of the relationship, length of time the relationship existed, frequency of interaction between the parties and time since termination of the relationship, if applicable.

(2) “Family or household member” means persons 18 years of age or older who are spouses, former spouses, parents or stepparents and children or stepchildren, and persons who are presently residing together or have resided together in the past, and persons who have a child in common regardless of whether they have been married or have lived together at any time. “Family or household member” also includes a man and woman if the woman is pregnant and the man is alleged to be the father, regardless of whether they have been married or have lived together at any time.

(j) “Domestic violence offense” means any crime committed whereby the underlying factual basis includes an act of domestic violence.

(k) “Dwelling” means a building or portion thereof, a tent, a vehicle or other enclosed space that is used or intended for use as a human habitation, home or residence.

(l) “Expungement” means the sealing of records such that the records are unavailable except to the petitioner and criminal justice agencies as provided by K.S.A. 22-4701 et seq., and amendments thereto, and except as provided in this act.

(m) “Firearm” means any weapon designed or having the capacity to propel a projectile by force of an explosion or combustion.

(n) “Forcible felony” includes any treason, murder, voluntary manslaughter, rape, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnapping, aggravated battery, aggravated sodomy and any other felony that involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any person.

(o) “Intent to defraud” means an intention to deceive another person, and to induce such other person, in reliance upon such deception, to assume, create, transfer, alter or terminate a right, obligation or power with reference to property.

(p) “Law enforcement officer” means:

(1) Any person who by virtue of such person’s office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for crimes, whether that duty extends to all crimes or is limited to specific crimes;

(2) any officer of the Kansas department of corrections or, for the purposes of K.S.A. 21-5412 and 21-5413(d), and amendments thereto, any employee of the Kansas department of corrections; or

(3) any university police officer or campus police officer, as defined in K.S.A. 22-2401a, and amendments thereto.

(q) “Obtain” means to bring about a transfer of interest in or possession of property, whether to the offender or to another.

(r) “Obtains or exerts control” over property includes, but is not limited to, the taking, carrying away, sale, conveyance, transfer of title to, interest in, or possession of property.

(s) “Owner” means a person who has any interest in property.

(t) “Person” means an individual, public or private corporation, government, partnership, or unincorporated association.

(u) “Personal property” means goods, chattels, effects, evidences of rights in action and all written instruments by which any pecuniary obligation, or any right or title to property real or personal, shall be created, acknowledged, assigned, transferred, increased, defeated, discharged, or dismissed.

(v) “Possession” means knowingly having joint or exclusive control over an item or knowingly keeping some item in a place where the person has some measure of access and right of control.

(w) “Property” means anything of value, tangible or intangible, real or personal.

(x) “Prosecution” means all legal proceedings by which a person’s liability for a crime is determined.

(y) “Prosecutor” means the same as prosecuting attorney in K.S.A. 22-2202, and amendments thereto.

(z) “Public employee” is a person employed by or acting for the state or by or for a county, municipality or other subdivision or governmental instrumentality of the state for the purpose of exercising their respective powers and performing their respective duties, and who is not a public officer.

(aa) “Public officer” includes the following, whether elected or appointed:

(1) An executive or administrative officer of the state, or a county, municipality or other subdivision or governmental instrumentality of or within the state;

(2) a member of the legislature or of a governing board of a county, municipality, or other subdivision of or within the state;

(3) a judicial officer, which shall include a judge of the district court, juror, master or any other person appointed by a judge or court to hear or determine a cause or controversy;

(4) a hearing officer, which shall include any person authorized by law or private agreement, to hear or determine a cause or controversy and who is not a judicial officer;

(5) a law enforcement officer; and

(6) any other person exercising the functions of a public officer under color of right.

(bb) “Real property” or “real estate” means every estate, interest, and right in lands, tenements and hereditaments.

(cc) “Solicit” or “solicitation” means to command, authorize, urge, incite, request or advise another to commit a crime.

(dd) “State” or “this state” means the state of Kansas and all land and water in respect to which the state of Kansas has either exclusive or concurrent jurisdiction, and the air space above such land and water. “Other state” means any state or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(ee) “Stolen property” means property over which control has been obtained by theft.

(ff) “Threat” means a communicated intent to inflict physical or other harm on any person or on property.(gg) “Written instrument” means any paper, document or other instrument containing written or printed matter or the equivalent thereof, used for purposes of reciting, embodying, conveying or recording information, and any money, token, stamp, seal, badge, trademark, or other evidence or symbol of value, right, privilege or identification that is capable of being used to the advantage or disadvantage of some person.

(a) Kidnapping is the taking or confining of any person, accomplished by force, threat or deception, with the intent to hold such person:

(1) For ransom, or as a shield or hostage;

(2) to facilitate flight or the commission of any crime;

(3) to inflict bodily injury or to terrorize the victim or another; or

(4) to interfere with the performance of any governmental or political function.

(b) Aggravated kidnapping is kidnapping, as defined in subsection (a), when bodily harm is inflicted upon the person kidnapped.

(c)(1) Kidnapping is a severity level 3, person felony.

(2) Aggravated kidnapping is a severity level 1, person felony.

(a) Criminal restraint is knowingly and without legal authority restraining another person so as to interfere substantially with such person’ s liberty.

(b) Criminal restraint is a class A person misdemeanor.

(c) This section shall not apply to acts done in the performance of duty by any law enforcement officer of the state of Kansas or any political subdivision thereof.

(d) Any merchant, or a merchant’s agent or employee, who has probable cause to believe that a person has actual possession of and has wrongfully taken, or is about to wrongfully take merchandise from a mercantile establishment, may detain such person on the premises or in the immediate vicinity thereof, in a reasonable manner and for a rea-sonable period of time for the purpose of investigating the circumstances of such possession. Such reasonable detention shall not constitute an arrest nor criminal restraint.

(a) Battery is:

(1) Knowingly or recklessly causing bodily harm to another person; or

(2) knowingly causing physical contact with another person when done in a rude, insulting or angry manner.

(b) Aggravated battery is:

(1)(A) Knowingly causing great bodily harm to another person or disfigurement of another person;

(B) knowingly causing bodily harm to another person with a deadly weapon, or in any manner whereby great bodily harm, disfigurement or death can be inflicted; or

(C) knowingly causing physical contact with another person when done in a rude, insulting or angry manner with a deadly weapon, or in any manner whereby great bodily harm, disfigurement or death can be inflicted;

(2)(A) recklessly causing great bodily harm to another person or disfigurement of another person;

(B) recklessly causing bodily harm to another person with a deadly weapon, or in any manner whereby great bodily harm, disfigurement or death can be inflicted; or

(3)(A) committing an act described in K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto, when great bodily harm to another person or disfigurement of another person results from such act; or

(B) committing an act described in K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto, when bodily harm to another person results from such act under circumstances whereby great bodily harm, disfigurement or death can result from such act; or

(4) committing an act described in K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto, when great bodily harm to another person or disfigurement of another person results from such act while:

(A) In violation of any restriction imposed on such person’s driving privileges pursuant to article 10 of chapter 8 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto;

(B) such person’s driving privileges are suspended or revoked pursuant to article 10 of chapter 8 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto; or

(C) such person has been deemed a habitual violator as defined in K.S.A. 8-285, and amendments thereto, including at least one violation of K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto, or violating an ordinance of any city in this state, any resolution of any county in this state or any law of another state, which ordinance, resolution or law declares to be unlawful the acts prohibited by that statute.

(c) Battery against a law enforcement officer is:

(1) Battery as defined in subsection (a)(2) committed against a:

(A) Uniformed or properly identified university or campus police officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(B) uniformed or properly identified state, county or city law enforcement officer, other than a state correctional officer or employee, a city or county correctional officer or employee or a juvenile detention facility officer, or employee, while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(C) uniformed or properly identified federal law enforcement officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(D) judge, while such judge is engaged in the performance of such judge’s duty;

(E) attorney, while such attorney is engaged in the performance of such attorney’s duty; or

(F) community corrections officer or court services officer, while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(2) battery as defined in subsection (a)(1) committed against a:

(A) Uniformed or properly identified university or campus police officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(B) uniformed or properly identified state, county or city law enforcement officer, other than a state correctional officer or employee, a city or county correctional officer or employee or a juvenile detention facility officer, or employee, while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(C) uniformed or properly identified federal law enforcement officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(D) judge, while such judge is engaged in the performance of such judge’s duty;

(E) attorney, while such attorney is engaged in the performance of such attorney’s duty; or

(F) community corrections officer or court services officer, while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty; or

(3) battery as defined in subsection (a) committed against a:

(A) State correctional officer or employee by a person in custody of the secretary of corrections, while such officer or employee is engaged in the performance of such officer’s or employee’s duty;

(B) state correctional officer or employee by a person confined in such juvenile correctional facility, while such officer or employee is engaged in the performance of such officer’s or employee’s duty;

(C) juvenile detention facility officer or employee by a person confined in such juvenile detention facility, while such officer or employee is engaged in the performance of such officer’s or employee’s duty; or

(D) city or county correctional officer or employee by a person confined in a city holding facility or county jail facility, while such officer or employee is engaged in the performance of such officer’s or employee’s duty.

(d) Aggravated battery against a law enforcement officer is:

(1) Aggravated battery as defined in subsection (b)(1)(A) committed against a:

(A) Uniformed or properly identified state, county or city law enforcement officer while the officer is engaged in the performance of the officer’s duty;

(B) uniformed or properly identified university or campus police officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(C) uniformed or properly identified federal law enforcement officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(D) judge, while such judge is engaged in the performance of such judge’s duty;

(E) attorney, while such attorney is engaged in the performance of such attorney’s duty; or

(F) community corrections officer or court services officer, while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(2) aggravated battery as defined in subsection (b)(1)(B) or (b) (1)(C) committed against a:

(A) Uniformed or properly identified state, county or city law enforcement officer while the officer is engaged in the performance of the officer’s duty;

(B) uniformed or properly identified university or campus police officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(C) uniformed or properly identified federal law enforcement officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty;

(D) judge, while such judge is engaged in the performance of such judge’s duty;

(E) attorney, while such attorney is engaged in the performance of such attorney’s duty; or

(F) community corrections officer or court services officer, while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty; or

(3) knowingly causing, with a motor vehicle, bodily harm to a:

(A) Uniformed or properly identified state, county or city law enforcement officer while the officer is engaged in the performance of the officer’s duty;

(B) uniformed or properly identified university or campus police officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty; or

(C) uniformed or properly identified federal law enforcement officer while such officer is engaged in the performance of such officer’s duty.

(e) Battery against a school employee is a battery as defined in subsection (a) committed against a school employee in or on any school property or grounds upon which is located a building or structure used by a unified school district or an accredited nonpublic school for student instruction or attendance or extracurricular activities of pupils enrolled in kindergarten or any of the grades one through 12 or at any regularly scheduled school sponsored activity or event, while such employee is engaged in the performance of such employee’s duty.

(f) Battery against a mental health employee is a battery as defined in subsection (a) committed against a mental health employee by a person in the custody of the secretary for aging and disability services, while such employee is engaged in the performance of such employee’s duty.

(g) Battery against a healthcare provider is a battery as defined in subsection (a) committed against a healthcare provider while such provider is engaged in the performance of such provider’s duty.

(h)(1) Battery is a class B person misdemeanor.

(2) Aggravated battery as defined in:

(A) Subsection (b)(1)(A) or (b)(4) is a severity level 4, person felony;

(B) subsection (b)(1)(B) or (b)(1)(C) is a severity level 7, person felony;

(C) subsection (b)(2)(A) or (b)(3)(A) is a severity level 5, person felony; and

(D) subsection (b)(2)(B) or (b)(3)(B) is a severity level 8, person felony.

(3) Battery against a law enforcement officer as defined in:

(A) Subsection (c)(1) is a class A person misdemeanor;

(B) subsection (c)(2) is a severity level 7, person felony; and

(C) subsection (c)(3) is a severity level 5, person felony.

(4) Aggravated battery against a law enforcement officer as defined in:

(A) Subsection (d)(1) or (d)(3) is a severity level 3, person felony; and

(B) subsection (d)(2) is a severity level 4, person felony.

(5) Battery against a school employee is a class A person misdemeanor.

(6) Battery against a mental health employee is a severity level 7, person felony.

(7) Battery against a healthcare provider is a class A person misdemeanor.

(i) As used in this section:

(1) “Correctional institution” means any institution or facility under the supervision and control of the secretary of corrections;

(2) “state correctional officer or employee” means any officer or employee of the Kansas department of corrections or any independent contractor, or any employee of such contractor, whose duties include working at a correctional institution;

(3) “juvenile detention facility officer or employee” means any officer or employee of a juvenile detention facility as defined in K.S.A. 38-2302, and amendments thereto;

(4) “city or county correctional officer or employee” means any correctional officer or employee of the city or county or any independent contractor, or any employee of such contractor, whose duties include working at a city holding facility or county jail facility;

(5) “school employee” means any employee of a unified school district or an accredited nonpublic school for student instruction or attendance or extracurricular activities of pupils enrolled in kindergarten or any of the grades one through 12;

(6) “mental health employee” means: (A) An employee of the Kansas department for aging and disability services working at Larned state hospital, Osawatomie state hospital, Kansas neurological institute and Parsons state hospital and training center and the treatment staff as defined in K.S.A. 59-29a02, and amendments thereto; and (B) contractors and employees of contractors under contract to provide services to the Kansas department for aging and disability services working at any such institution or facility;

(7) “judge” means a duly elected or appointed justice of the supreme court, judge of the court of appeals, judge of any district court of Kansas, district magistrate judge or municipal court judge;

(8) “attorney” means a: (A) County attorney, assistant county attorney, special assistant county attorney, district attorney, assistant district attorney, special assistant district attorney, attorney general, assistant attorney general or special assistant attorney general; and (B) public defender, assistant public defender, contract counsel for the state board of indigents’ defense services or an attorney who is appointed by the court to perform services for an indigent person as provided by article 45 of chapter 22 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto;

(9) “community corrections officer” means an employee of a community correctional services program responsible for supervision of adults or juveniles as assigned by the court to community corrections supervision and any other employee of a community correctional services program that provides enhanced supervision of offenders such as house arrest and surveillance programs;

(10) “court services officer” means an employee of the Kansas judicial branch or local judicial district responsible for supervising, monitoring or writing reports relating to adults or juveniles as assigned by the court, or performing related duties as assigned by the court;

(11) “federal law enforcement officer” means a law enforcement officer employed by the United States federal government who, as part of such officer’s duties, is permitted to make arrests and to be armed; and

(12) “healthcare provider” means an individual who is licensed, registered, certified or otherwise authorized by the state of Kansas to provide healthcare services in this state.

(a) Sexual battery is the touching of a victim who is 16 or more years of age and who does not consent thereto, with the intent to arouse or satisfy the sexual desires of the offender or another.

(b) Aggravated sexual battery is sexual battery, as defined in subsection (a), under any of the following circumstances:

(1) When the victim is overcome by force or fear;

(2) when the victim is unconscious or physically powerless; or

(3) when the victim is incapable of giving consent because of mental deficiency or disease, or when the victim is incapable of giving consent because of the effect of any alcoholic liquor, narcotic, drug or other substance, which condition was known by, or was reasonably apparent to, the offender.

(c)(1) Sexual battery is a class A person misdemeanor.

(2) Aggravated sexual battery is a severity level 5, person felony.(d) Except as provided in subsection (b)(3), it shall not be a defense that the offender did not know or have reason to know that the victim did not consent to the battery, that the victim was overcome by force or fear, or that the victim was unconscious or physically powerless.

(a) Endangering a child is knowingly and unreasonably causing or permitting a child under the age of 18 years to be placed in a situation in which the child’s life, body or health may be endangered.
 

(b) Aggravated endangering a child is:
 

(1) Recklessly causing or permitting a child under the age of 18 years to be placed in a situation in which the child’s life, body or health is endangered;
 

(2) causing or permitting such child to be in an environment where the person knows or reasonably should know that any person is distributing, possessing with intent to distribute, manufacturing or attempting to manufacture any methamphetamine or any fentanyl-related controlled substance; or
 

(3) causing or permitting such child to be in an environment where the person knows or reasonably should know that:
 

(A) Drug paraphernalia or volatile, toxic or flammable chemicals are stored or used for the purpose of manufacturing or attempting to manufacture any methamphetamine; or
 

(B) drug paraphernalia or toxic materials, compounds or mixtures are stored or used for the purpose of manufacturing or attempting to manufacture any fentanyl-related controlled substance.
 

(c)(1) Endangering a child is a class A person misdemeanor.
 

(2) Aggravated endangering a child is a:
 

(A) Severity level 9, person felony except as provided in subsection (c)(2)(B); and
 

(B) severity level 6, person felony when bodily harm is inflicted upon the child.
 

(3) The sentence for a violation of aggravated endangering a child shall be served consecutively to any other term or terms of imprisonment imposed. Such sentence shall not be considered a departure and shall not be subject to appeal.
 

(d) Nothing in subsection (a) shall be construed to mean a child is endangered for the sole reason the child’s parent or guardian, in good faith, selects and depends upon spiritual means alone through prayer, in accordance with the tenets and practice of a recognized church or religious denomination, for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care of such child.
 

(e) As used in this section:
 

(1) “Drug paraphernalia,” “fentanyl-related controlled substance” and “manufacture” mean the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto; and
 

(2) “methamphetamine” means any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or any analog thereof.

(a) Criminal nonsupport is:

(1) A parent’s failure, neglect or refusal without lawful excuse to provide for the support and maintenance of the parent’s child in necessitous circumstances; or

(2) a person’s failure, without just cause, to provide for the support of such person’s spouse in necessitous circum-stances.

(b) Criminal nonsupport is a severity level 10, nonperson felony.

(c) As used in this section, “child” means a child under the age of 18 years and includes an adopted child or a child born out of wedlock whose parentage has been judicially determined or has been acknowledged in writing by the person to be charged with the support of such child.

(d)(1) At any time before the trial, upon petition and notice, the court may enter such temporary order as may seem just providing for support of such child or spouse, and may punish for violation of such order as for contempt.

(2) At any stage of the proceeding, instead of or in addition to imposing the penalty provided, the court, in its dis-cretion and having regard for the circumstances and the financial ability or earning capacity of the defendant, may enter an order which shall be subject to change by the court, as circumstances may require, directing the defendant to pay a certain sum periodically, for a term not exceeding the period during which the obligation to support shall continue, to the spouse, if applicable, the guardian, conservator or custodian of such child or spouse or to an or-ganization or individual approved by the court as trustee. The court shall also have the power to release the de-fendant on probation for the period so fixed, upon the defendant’s entering into a recognizance, with or without surety, in such sum as the court may order and approve. The condition of the recognizance shall be such that if the defendant makes a personal appearance in court whenever ordered to do so and further complies with the terms of such order of support, or of any subsequent modification thereof, then such recognizance shall be void; otherwise the recognizance shall be of full force and effect.

(3) If the court is satisfied by due proof that, at any time during the period while the obligation to support continues, the defendant has violated the terms of such order, the court may forthwith proceed with the trial of the defendant under the original charge, or sentence the defendant under the original conviction, or enforce the suspended sentence as the case may be.

(4) In no prosecution under this section shall any existing statute or rule of law prohibiting the disclosure of con-fidential communications between husband and wife apply, and both husband and wife shall be competent wit-nesses to testify against each other to any and all relevant matters, including the parentage of such child.

(e) Failure by a spouse to use resources or income, or both, allowed to the spouse under section 303 of the federal medicare catastrophic coverage act of 1988 or under K.S.A. 39-785 through 39-790, and amendments thereto, as applicable, to provide medical support for the other spouse shall not constitute a violation of subsection (a)(2) so long as the other spouse is receiving medical assistance as defined by K.S.A. 39-702, and amendments thereto.

(a) Criminal trespass is entering or remaining upon or in any:

(1) Land, nonnavigable body of water, structure, vehicle, aircraft or watercraft by a person who knows such person is not authorized or privileged to do so, and:

(A) Such person enters or remains therein in defiance of an order not to enter or to leave such premises or property personally communicated to such person by the owner thereof or other authorized person;

(B) such premises or property are posted as provided in K.S.A. 32-1013, and amendments thereto, or in any other manner reasonably likely to come to the attention of intruders, or are locked or fenced or otherwise enclosed, or shut or secured against passage or entry; or

(C) such person enters or remains therein in defiance of a restraining order issued pursuant to K.S.A. 60-3105, 60-3106, 60-3107, 60-31a05 or 60-31a06 or K.S.A. 23-2707, 38-2243, 38-2244 or 38-2255, and amendments thereto, and the restraining order has been personally served upon the person so restrained; or

(2) public or private land or structure in a manner that interferes with access to or from any health care facility by a person who knows such person is not authorized or privileged to do so and such person enters or remains thereon or therein in defiance of an order not to enter or to leave such land or structure personally communicated to such person by the owner of the health care facility or other authorized person.

(b) Criminal trespass is a class B nonperson misdemeanor. Upon a conviction of a violation of subsection (a)(1)(C), a person shall be sentenced to not less than 48 consecutive hours of imprisonment which shall be served either before or as a condition of any grant of probation or suspension, reduction of sentence or parole.

(c) As used in this section:

(1) “Health care facility” means any licensed medical care facility, certificated health maintenance organization, licensed mental health center or mental health clinic, licensed psychiatric hospital or other facility or office where services of a health care provider are provided directly to patients; and

(2) “health care provider” means any person:

(A) Licensed to practice a branch of the healing arts;

(B) licensed to practice psychology;

(C) licensed to practice professional or practical nursing;

(D) licensed to practice dentistry;

(E) licensed to practice optometry;

(F) licensed to practice pharmacy;

(G) registered to practice podiatry;

(H) licensed as a social worker; or

(I) registered to practice physical therapy.

(d) This section shall not apply to:

(1) A land surveyor, licensed pursuant to article 70 of chapter 74 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, and such surveyor’s authorized agents and employees who enter upon lands, waters and other premises in the making of a survey; or

(2) railroad property as defined in K.S.A. 21-5809, and amendments thereto, or nuclear generating facility as defined in K.S.A. 66-2302, and amendments thereto.

(a) False impersonation is representing oneself to be a public officer, public employee or a person licensed to practice or engage in any profession or vocation for which a license is required by the laws of the state of Kansas, with knowledge that such representation is false.

(b) Aggravated false impersonation is falsely representing or impersonating another and in such falsely assumed character:

(1) Becoming bail or security, or acknowledging any recognizance, or executing any bond or other instrument as bail or security, for any party in any proceeding, civil or criminal, before any court or officer authorized to take such bail or security;

(2) confessing any judgment;

(3) acknowledging the execution of any conveyance of property, or any other instrument which by law may be recorded; or

(4) doing any other act in the course of a suit, proceeding or prosecution whereby the person who is represented or impersonated may be made liable to the payment of any debt, damages, costs or sum of money, or such person’s rights or interests may be in any manner affected.

(c)

(1) False impersonation is a class B nonperson misdemeanor.

(2) Aggravated false impersonation is a severity level 9, nonperson felony.

(a) Identity theft is obtaining, possessing, transferring, using, selling or purchasing any personal identifying information, or document containing the same, belonging to or issued to another person, with the intent to:

(1) Defraud that person, or anyone else, in order to receive any benefit; or

(2) misrepresent that person in order to subject that person to economic or bodily harm.

(b) Identity fraud is:

(1) Using or supplying information the person knows to be false in order to obtain a document containing any personal identifying information; or

(2) altering, amending, counterfeiting, making, manufacturing or otherwise replicating any document containing personal identifying information with the intent to deceive;

(c)(1) Identity theft is a:

(A) Severity level 8, nonperson felony, except as provided in subsection (c)(1)(B); and

(B) severity level 5, nonperson felony if the monetary loss to the victim or victims is more than $100,000.

(2) Identity fraud is a severity level 8, nonperson felony.

(d) It is not a defense that the person did not know that such personal identifying information belongs to another person, or that the person to whom such personal identifying information belongs or was issued is deceased.

(e) As used in this section:

(1) “Personal electronic content” means the electronically stored content of an individual including, but not limited to, pictures, videos, emails and other data files;

(2) “personal identifying information” includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(A) Name;

(B) birth date;

(C) address;

(D) telephone number;

(E) driver’s license number or card or nondriver’s identification number or card;

(F) social security number or card;

(G) place of employment;

(H) employee identification numbers or other personal identification numbers or cards;

(I) mother’s maiden name;

(J) birth, death or marriage certificates;

(K) electronic identification numbers;

(L) electronic signatures;

(M) any financial number, or password that can be used to access a person’s financial resources, including, but not limited to, checking or savings accounts, credit or debit card information, demand deposit or medical information; and

(N) passwords, usernames or other log-in information that can be used to access a person’s personal electronic content, including, but not limited to, content stored on a social networking website; and

(3) “social networking website” means a privacy-protected internet website which allows individuals to construct a public or semi-public profile within a bounded system created by the service, create a list of other users with whom the individual shares a connection within the system and view and navigate the list of users with whom the individual shares a connection and those lists of users made by others within the system.

.

(a) Harassment by telecommunication device is the use of:

(1) A telecommunications device to:

(A) Knowingly make or transmit any comment, request, suggestion, proposal, image or text which is obscene, lewd, lascivious or indecent;

(B) make or transmit a call, whether or not conversation ensues, with intent to abuse, threaten or harass any person at the receiving end;

(C) make or transmit any comment, request, suggestion, proposal, image or text with intent to abuse, threaten or harass any person at the receiving end;

(D) make or cause a telecommunications device to repeatedly ring or activate with intent to harass any person at the receiving end;

(E) knowingly play any recording on a telephone, except recordings such as weather information or sports information when the number thereof is dialed, unless the person or group playing the recording shall be identified and state that it is a recording; or

(F) knowingly permit any telecommunications device under one’s control to be used in violation of this paragraph.

(2) Telefacsimile communication to send or transmit such communication to a court in the state of Kansas for a use other than court business, with no requirement of culpable mental state.

(b) Harassment by telecommunication device is a class A nonperson misdemeanor.

(c) Every telephone directory published for distribution to members of the general public shall contain a notice setting forth a summary of the provisions of this section. Such notice shall be printed in type which is no smaller than any other type on the same page and shall be preceded by the word “WARNING.”

(d) As used in this section, “telecommunications device” includes telephones, cellular telephones, telefacsimile machines and any other electronic device which makes use of an electronic communication service, as defined in K.S.A. 22-2514, and amendments thereto.

(e) An offender who violates the provisions of this section may also be prosecuted for, convicted of, and punished for any other offense in K.S.A. 21-5508, 21-5509, 21-5510 or 21-6401.

(a) Criminal use of weapons is knowingly:

(1) Selling, manufacturing, purchasing or possessing any bludgeon, sand club or metal knuckles;

(2) possessing with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, blackjack, slungshot, dangerous knife, straight-edged razor, throwing star, stiletto or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character;

(3) setting a spring gun;

(4) possessing any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in suppressing the report of any firearm;

(5) selling, manufacturing, purchasing or possessing a shotgun with a barrel less than 18 inches in length, or any firearm designed to discharge or capable of discharging automatically more than once by a single function of the trigger, whether the person knows or has reason to know the length of the barrel or that the firearm is designed or capable of discharging automatically;

(6) possessing, manufacturing, causing to be manufactured, selling, offering for sale, lending, purchasing or giving away any cartridge which can be fired by a handgun and which has a plastic-coated bullet that has a core of less than 60% lead by weight, whether the person knows or has reason to know that the plastic-coated bullet has a core of less than 60% lead by weight;

(7) selling, giving or otherwise transferring any firearm with a barrel less than 12 inches long to any person under 18 years of age whether the person knows or has reason to know the length of the barrel;

(8) selling, giving or otherwise transferring any firearms to any person who is both addicted to and an unlawful user of a controlled substance;

(9) selling, giving or otherwise transferring any firearm to any person who is or has been a mentally ill person subject to involuntary commitment for care and treatment, as defined in K.S.A. 59-2946, and amendments thereto, or a person with an alcohol or substance abuse problem subject to involuntary commitment for care and treatment as defined in K.S.A. 59-29b46, and amendments thereto;

(10) possessing any firearm by a person who is both addicted to and an unlawful user of a controlled substance;

(11) possessing any firearm by any person, other than a law enforcement officer, in or on any school property or grounds upon which is located a building or structure used by a unified school district or an accredited nonpublic school for student instruction or attendance or extracurricular activities of pupils enrolled in kindergarten or any of the grades one through 12 or at any regularly scheduled school sponsored activity or event whether the person knows or has reason to know that such person was in or on any such property or grounds;

(12) refusing to surrender or immediately remove from school property or grounds or at any regularly scheduled school sponsored activity or event any firearm in the possession of any person, other than a law enforcement officer, when so requested or directed by any duly authorized school employee or any law enforcement officer;

(13) possessing any firearm by a person who is or has been a mentally ill person subject to involuntary commitment for care and treatment, as defined in K.S.A. 59-2946, and amendments thereto, or persons with an alcohol or substance abuse problem subject to involuntary commitment for care and treatment as defined in K.S.A. 59-29b46, and amendments thereto;

(14) possessing a firearm with a barrel less than 12 inches long by any person less than 18 years of age;

(15) possessing any firearm while a fugitive from justice;

(16) possessing any firearm by a person who is an alien illegally or unlawfully in the United States;

(17) possessing any firearm by a person while such person is subject to a court order that:

(A) Was issued after a hearing, of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(B) restrains such person from harassing, stalking or threatening an intimate partner of such person or a child of such person or such intimate partner, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or the child; and

(C)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or

(ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury; or

(18) possessing any firearm by a person who, within the preceding five years, has been convicted of a misdemeanor for a domestic violence offense, or a misdemeanor under a law of another jurisdiction which is substantially the same as such misdemeanor offense.

(b) Criminal use of weapons as defined in:

(1) Subsection (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9) or (a)(12) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor;

(2) subsection (a)(4), (a)(5) or (a)(6) is a severity level 9, nonperson felony;

(3) subsection (a)(10) or (a)(11) is a class B nonperson select misdemeanor;

(4) subsection (a)(13), (a)(15), (a)(16), (a)(17) or (a)(18) is a severity level 8, nonperson felony; and

(5) subsection (a)(14) is a:

(A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor except as provided in subsection (b)(5)(B);

(B) severity level 8, nonperson felony upon a second or subsequent conviction.

(c) Subsections (a)(1), (a)(2) and (a)(5) shall not apply to:

(1) Law enforcement officers, or any person summoned by any such officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while actually engaged in assisting such officer;

(2) wardens, superintendents, directors, security personnel and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of crime, while acting within the scope of their authority;

(3) members of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or the Kansas national guard while in the performance of their official duty; or

(4) the manufacture of, transportation to, or sale of weapons to a person authorized under subsections (c)(1), (c)(2) and (c)(3) to possess such weapons.

(d) Subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) shall not apply to any person who sells, purchases, possesses or carries a firearm, device or attachment which has been rendered unserviceable by steel weld in the chamber and marriage weld of the barrel to the receiver and which has been registered in the national firearms registration and transfer record in compliance with 26 U.S.C. § 5841 et seq. in the name of such person and, if such person transfers such firearm, device or attachment to another person, has been so registered in the transferee’s name by the transferor.

(e) Subsection (a)(6) shall not apply to a governmental laboratory or solid plastic bullets.

(f) Subsection (a)(4) shall not apply to a law enforcement officer who is:

(1) Assigned by the head of such officer’s law enforcement agency to a tactical unit which receives specialized, regular training;

(2) designated by the head of such officer’s law enforcement agency to possess devices described in subsection (a)(4); and

(3) in possession of commercially manufactured devices which are:

(A) Owned by the law enforcement agency;

(B) in such officer’s possession only during specific operations; and

(C) approved by the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms and explosives of the United States department of justice.

(g) Subsections (a)(4), (a)(5) and (a)(6) shall not apply to any person employed by a laboratory which is certified by the United States department of justice, national institute of justice, while actually engaged in the duties of their employment and on the premises of such certified laboratory. Subsections (a)(4), (a)(5) and (a)(6) shall not affect the manufacture of, transportation to or sale of weapons to such certified laboratory.

(h) Subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) shall not apply to or affect any person or entity in compliance with the national firearms act, 26 U.S.C. § 5801 et seq.

(i)(1) Subsection (a)(4) shall not apply to or affect any person in possession of a device or attachment designed, used or intended for use in suppressing the report of any firearm, if such device or attachment satisfies the description of a Kansas-made firearm accessory as set forth in K.S.A. 50-1204, and amendments thereto.

(2) The provisions of this subsection shall apply to any violation of subsection (a)(4) that occurred on or after April 25, 2013.

(j) Subsection (a)(11) shall not apply to:

(1) Possession of any firearm in connection with a firearms safety course of instruction or firearms education course approved and authorized by the school;

(2) possession of any firearm specifically authorized in writing by the superintendent of any unified school district or the chief administrator of any accredited nonpublic school;

(3) possession of a firearm secured in a motor vehicle by a parent, guardian, custodian or someone authorized to act in such person’s behalf who is delivering or collecting a student;

(4) possession of a firearm secured in a motor vehicle by a registered voter who is on the school grounds, which contain a polling place for the purpose of voting during polling hours on an election day; or

(5) possession of a concealed handgun by an individual who is not prohibited from possessing a firearm under either federal or state law, and who is either: (A) 21 years of age or older; or (B) possesses a valid provisional license issued pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7c03, and amendments thereto, or a valid license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another jurisdiction that is recognized in this state pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7c03, and amendments thereto.

(k) Subsections (a)(9) and (a)(13) shall not apply to a person who has received a certificate of restoration pursuant to K.S.A. 75-7c26, and amendments thereto.

(l) Subsection (a)(14) shall not apply if such person, less than 18 years of age, was:

(1) In attendance at a hunter’s safety course or a firearms safety course;

(2) engaging in practice in the use of such firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction in which such range is located, or at another private range with permission of such person’s parent or legal guardian;

(3) engaging in an organized competition involving the use of such firearm, or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organization exempt from federal income tax pursuant to section 501(c) (3) of the internal revenue code of 1986 which uses firearms as a part of such performance;

(4) hunting or trapping pursuant to a valid license issued to such person pursuant to article 9 of chapter 32 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto;

(5) traveling with any such firearm in such person’s possession being unloaded to or from any activity described in subsections (l)(1) through (l)(4), only if such firearm is secured, unloaded and outside the immediate access of such person;

(6) on real property under the control of such person’s parent, legal guardian or grandparent and who has the permission of such parent, legal guardian or grandparent to possess such firearm; or

(7) at such person’s residence and who, with the permission of such person’s parent or legal guardian, possesses such firearm for the purpose of exercising the rights contained in K.S.A. 21-5222, 21-5223 or 21-5225, and amendments thereto.

(m) As used in this section:

(1) “Domestic violence” means the use or attempted use of physical force, or the threatened use of a deadly weapon, committed against a person with whom the offender is involved or has been involved in a dating relationship or is a family or household member.

(2) “Fugitive from justice” means any person having knowledge that a warrant for the commission of a felony has been issued for the apprehension of such person under K.S.A. 22-2713, and amendments thereto.

(3) “Intimate partner” means, with respect to a person, the spouse of the person, a former spouse of the person, an individual who is a parent of a child of the person or an individual who cohabitates or has cohabitated with the person.(4) “Throwing star” means any instrument, without handles, consisting of a metal plate having three or more radiating points with one or more sharp edges and designed in the shape of a polygon, trefoil, cross, star, diamond or other geometric shape, manufactured for use as a weapon for throwing.

(a) Criminal possession of a weapon by a convicted felon is possession of any weapon by a person who:

(1) Has been convicted of a person felony or a violation of article 57 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, K.S.A. 21-36a01 through 21-36a17, prior to their transfer, or any violation of any provision of the uniform controlled substances act prior to July 1, 2009, or a crime under a law of another jurisdiction that is substantially the same as such felony or violation, or was adjudicated a juvenile offender because of the commission of an act which if done by an adult would constitute the commission of a person felony or a violation of article 57 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, K.S.A. 21-36a01 through 21-36a17, prior to their transfer, or any violation of any provision of the uniform controlled substances act prior to July 1, 2009, and was found by the convicting court to have used a firearm in the commission of the crime;

(2) (A)(i) Has been convicted of a person felony, other than those specified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(i), under the laws of Kansas or a crime under the law of another jurisdiction which is substantially the same as such person felony; or

(ii) was adjudicated as a juvenile offender because of the commission of an act which if done by an adult would constitute the commission of a person felony;

(B) was not found by the convicting court to have used a firearm in the commission of such crime; and

(C) less than three years have elapsed since such person satisfied the sentence imposed or the terms of any diversion agreement for such crime, or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence;

(3)(A)(i) has been convicted of a felony under:

(a) K.S.A. 21-5402, 21-5403, 21-5404, 21-5405, 21-5408, 21-5412 (b) or (d), 21-5413(b) or (d), 21-5415(a), 21-5420(b), 21-5503, 21-5504(b), 21-5505(b), and 21-5807(b), and amendments thereto;

(b) article 57 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto;

(c) K.S.A. 21-36a01 through 21-36a17, prior to their transfer;

(d) K.S.A. 21-3401, 21-3402, 21-3403, 21-3404, 21-3410, 21-3411, 21-3414, 21-3415, 21-3419, 21-3420, 21-3421, 21-3427, 21-3442, 21-3502, 21-3506, 21-3518, 21-3716, 65-4127a, 65-4127b, 65-4159 through 65-4165 or 65-7006, prior to their repeal;

(e) an attempt, conspiracy or criminal solicitation as defined in K.S.A. 21-3301, 21-3302 or 21-3303, prior to their repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5301, 21-5302 or 21-5303, and amendments thereto, of any such felony; or

(f) a crime under a law of another jurisdiction that is substantially the same as such felony; or

(ii) has been released from imprisonment for such felony, or was adjudicated as a juvenile offender because of the commission of an act which if done by an adult would constitute the commission of such felony; and

(B) less than eight years have elapsed since such person satisfied the sentence imposed or the terms of any diversion agreement for such crime, or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence; or

(4)(A)(i) has been convicted of any other nonperson felony, other than those specified in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(3), under the laws of Kansas or a crime under the law of another jurisdiction which is substantially the same as such nonperson felony; or

(ii) was adjudicated as a juvenile offender because of the commission of an act which if done by an adult would constitute the commission of a nonperson felony; and

(B) less than three months have elapsed since such person satisfied the sentence imposed or the terms of any diversion agreement for such crime, or was discharged from probation, a community correctional services program, parole, postrelease supervision, conditional release or a suspended sentence.

(b) Criminal possession of a weapon by a convicted felon is a severity level 8, nonperson felony.

(c) The provisions of subsections (a)(1), (a)(2) and (a)(4) shall not apply to a person who has been convicted of a crime and has had the conviction of such crime expunged or has been pardoned for such crime.

(d) As used in this section:

(1) “Knife” means a dagger, dirk, switchblade, stiletto, straight-edged razor or any other dangerous or deadly cutting instrument of like character; and(2) “weapon” means a firearm or a knife.

(a) A man is presumed to be the father of a child if:

(1) The man and the child’s mother are, or have been, married to each other and the child is born during the marriage or within 300 days after the marriage is terminated by death or by the filing of a journal entry of a decree of annulment or divorce.

(2) Before the child’s birth, the man and the child’s mother have attempted to marry each other by a marriage solemnized in apparent compliance with law, although the attempted marriage is void or voidable and:

(A) If the attempted marriage is voidable, the child is born during the attempted marriage or within 300 days after its termination by death or by the filing of a journal entry of a decree of annulment or divorce; or

(B) if the attempted marriage is void, the child is born within 300 days after the termination of cohabitation.

(3) After the child’s birth, the man and the child’s mother have married, or attempted to marry, each other by a marriage solemnized in apparent compliance with law, although the attempted marriage is void or voidable and:

(A) The man has acknowledged paternity of the child in writing;

(B) with the man’s consent, the man is named as the child’s father on the child’s birth certificate; or

(C) the man is obligated to support the child under a written voluntary promise or by a court order.

(4) The man notoriously or in writing recognizes paternity of the child, including but not limited to a voluntary acknowledgment made in accordance with K.S.A. 23-2223 or K.S.A. 65-2409a, and amendments thereto.

(5) Genetic test results indicate a probability of 97% or greater that the man is the father of the child.

(6) The man has a duty to support the child under an order of support regardless of whether the man has ever been married to the child’s mother.

(b) A presumption under this section may be rebutted only by clear and convincing evidence, by a court decree establishing paternity of the child by another man or as provided in subsection (c). If a presumption is rebutted, the party alleging the existence of a father and child relationship shall have the burden of going forward with the evidence.

(c) If two or more presumptions under this section arise which conflict with each other, the presumption which on the facts is founded on the weightier considerations of policy and logic, including the best interests of the child, shall control.

(d) Full faith and credit shall be given to a determination of paternity made by any other state or jurisdiction, whether the determination is established by judicial or administrative process or by voluntary acknowledgment. As used in this section, “full faith and credit” means that the determination of paternity shall have the same conclusive effect and obligatory force in this state as it has in the state or jurisdiction where made.

(e) If a presumption arises under this section, the presumption shall be sufficient basis for entry of an order requiring the man to support the child without further paternity proceedings.

(f) The donor of semen provided to a licensed physician for use in artificial insemination of a woman other than the donor’s wife is treated in law as if he were not the birth father of a child thereby conceived, unless agreed to in writing by the donor and the woman.

(a) State. The petitioner or respondent in an action for divorce must have been an actual resident of the state for 60 days immediately preceding the filing of the petition.

(b) Military residence. Any person who has been a resident of or stationed at a United States post or military reservation within the state for 60 days immediately preceding the filing of the petition may file an action for divorce in any county adjacent to the post or reservation.

(c) Residence of spouse. For the purposes of this article, a spouse may have a residence in this state separate and apart from the residence of the other spouse.

The court may make a modification of maintenance retroactive to a date at least one month after the date that the motion to modify was filed with the court. In any event, the court may not award maintenance for a period of time in excess of 121 months. If the original court decree reserves the power of the court to hear subsequent motions for reinstatement of maintenance and such a motion is filed prior to the expiration of the stated period of time for maintenance payments, the court shall have jurisdiction to hear a motion by the recipient of the maintenance to reinstate the maintenance payments. Upon motion and hearing, the court may reinstate the payments in whole or in part for a period of time, conditioned upon any modifying or terminating circumstances prescribed by the court, but the reinstatement shall be limited to a period of time not exceeding 121 months. The recipient may file subsequent motions for reinstatement of maintenance prior to the expiration of subsequent periods of time for maintenance payments to be made, but no single period of reinstatement ordered by the court may exceed 121 months.

If the parties have entered into a parenting plan, it shall be presumed that the agreement is in the best interests of the child. This presumption may be overcome and the court may make a different order if the court makes specific findings of fact stating why the agreed parenting plan is not in the best interests of the child.

Subject to the provisions of this article, the court may make any order relating to custodial arrangements which is in the best interests of the child. The order shall provide one of the following legal custody arrangements, in the order of preference:

(a) Joint legal custody. The court may order the joint legal custody of a child with both parties. In that event, the parties shall have equal rights to make decisions in the best interests of the child.

(b) Sole legal custody. The court may order the sole legal custody of a child with one of the parties when the court finds that it is not in the best interests of the child that both of the parties have equal rights to make decisions pertaining to the child. If the court does not order joint legal custody, the court shall include on the record specific findings of fact upon which the order for sole legal custody is based. The award of sole legal custody to one parent shall not deprive the other parent of access to information regarding the child unless the court shall so order, stating the reasons for that determination.

(a) Parents. A parent is entitled to reasonable parenting time unless the court finds, after a hearing, that the exercise of parenting time would seriously endanger the child’s physical, mental, moral or emotional health.

(b) Enforcement of rights. An order granting parenting time under this article may be enforced in accordance with the uniform child custody jurisdiction and enforcement act, or K.S.A. 23-3401, and amendments thereto.

(c) Court-ordered exchange or parenting time at a child exchange and visitation center. The court may order exchange or parenting time to take place at a child exchange and visitation center, as established in K.S.A. 75-720, and amendments thereto.

(a) The court shall inform the parents, or require them to be informed, about:

(1) How to prepare a parenting plan;

(2) the impact of family dissolution on children and how the needs of children facing family dissolution can best be addressed;

(3) the impact of domestic abuse on children, and resources for addressing domestic abuse; and

(4) mediation or other nonjudicial procedures designed to help them achieve an agreement.

(b) The court may require the parents to attend parent education classes.

(c) If parents are unable to resolve issues and agree to a parenting plan, the court may require mediation, unless mediation is determined inappropriate in the particular case.

(d) The clerk of the district court shall supply forms and information prescribed by the supreme court which may be used for submission of temporary and permanent parenting plans.

(a) The court may modify an order granting or denying parenting time or visitation rights whenever modification would serve the best interests of the child.

(b) Repeated unreasonable denial of or interference with visitation rights or parenting time granted pursuant to this section may be considered a material change of circumstances which justifies modification of a prior order of legal custody, residency, visitation or parenting time.

(c) Any party may petition the court to modify an order granting visitation rights or parenting time to require that the exchange or transfer of children for visitation or parenting time take place at a child exchange and visitation center, as established in K.S.A. 75-720, and amendments thereto. The court may modify an order granting visitation whenever modification would serve the best interests of the child.

(a) A mediator appointed under K.S.A. 23-602 and amendments thereto shall:

(1) Inform the parties of the costs of mediation;

(2) advise the parties that the mediator does not represent either or both of the parties;

(3) define and describe the process of mediation to the parties;

(4) disclose the nature and extent of any relationships with the parties and any personal, financial or other interests which could result in bias or a conflict of interest;

(5) advise each of the parties to obtain independent legal advice;

(6) allow only the parties to attend the mediation sessions;

(7) disclose to the parties’ attorneys any factual documentation revealed during the mediation if at the end of the mediation process the disclosure is agreed to by the parties;

(8) ensure that the parties consider fully the best interests of the children and that the parties understand the consequences of any decision they reach concerning the children; and

(9) inform the parties of the extent to which information obtained from and about the participants through the mediation process is not privileged and may be subject to disclosure.

(b) The mediator may meet with the children of any party and, with the consent of the parties, may meet with other persons.

(c) The mediator shall make a written summary of any understanding reached by the parties. A copy of the summary shall be provided to the parties and their attorneys, if any. The mediator shall advise each party in writing to obtain legal assistance in drafting any agreement or for reviewing any agreement drafted by the other party. Any understanding reached by the parties as a result of mediation shall not be binding upon the parties nor admissible in court until it is reduced to writing, signed by the parties and their attorneys, if any, and approved by the court. If the parties are not represented by attorneys, the mediator shall provide to the court or hearing officer the written summary of any understanding signed by the parties, which, if approved by the court or hearing officer, shall be incorporated in the order of the court or hearing officer.

(d) The mediator may act as a mediator in subsequent disputes between the parties. However, the mediator shall decline to act as attorney, counselor or psychotherapist for either party during or after the mediation or divorce proceedings unless the subsequent representation, counseling or treatment is clearly distinct from the mediation issues.

(UCCJEA 204). (a) A court of this state has temporary emergency jurisdiction if the child is present in this state and the child has been abandoned or it is necessary in an emergency to protect the child because the child, or a sibling or parent of the child, is subjected to or threatened with mistreatment or abuse.

(b) If there is no previous child-custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this act and a child-custody proceeding has not been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto, a child-custody determination made under this section remains in effect until an order is obtained from a court of a state having jurisdiction under K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto. If a child-custody proceeding has not been or is not commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto, a child-custody determination made under this section becomes a final determination, if it so provides and this state becomes the home state of the child.

(c) If there is a previous child-custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this act, or a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto, any order issued by a court of this state under this section must specify in the order a period that the court considers adequate to allow the person seeking an order to obtain an order from the state having jurisdiction under K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto. The order issued in this state remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other state within the period specified or the period expires.

(d) A court of this state which has been asked to make a child-custody determination under this section, upon being informed that a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child-custody determination has been made by, a court of a state having jurisdiction under K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto, shall immediately communicate with the other court. A court of this state which is exercising jurisdiction pursuant to K.S.A. 38-1348 through 38-1350 and amendments thereto, upon being informed that a child-custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child-custody determination has been made by, a court of another state under a statute similar to this section shall immediately communicate with the court of that state to resolve the emergency, protect the safety of the parties and the child, and determine a period for the duration of the temporary order.

(a) A court on its own motion may order abduction prevention measures in a child-custody proceeding if the court finds that the evidence establishes a credible risk of abduction of the child.

(b) A party to a child-custody determination or another individual or entity having a right under the law of this state or any other state to seek a child-custody determination for the child may file a petition seeking abduction prevention measures to protect the child under this act.

(c) A prosecutor or public authority designated under K.S.A. 23-37,315 may seek a warrant to take physical custody of a child under K.S.A. 23-3809, and amendments thereto, or other appropriate prevention measures.

(a) If a petition is filed under this act, the court may enter an order that must include:

(1) the basis for the court’s exercise of jurisdiction;
(2) the manner in which notice and opportunity to be heard were given to the persons entitled to notice of the proceeding;
(3) a detailed description of each party’s custody and visitation rights and residential arrangements for the child;
(4) a provision stating that a violation of the order may subject the party in violation to civil and criminal penalties; and
(5) identification of the child’s country of habitual residence at the time of the issuance of the order.

(b) If, at a hearing on a petition under this act or on the court’s own motion, the court after reviewing the evidence finds a credible risk of abduction of the child, the court shall enter an abduction prevention order. The order must include the provisions required by subsection (a) and measures and conditions, including those in subsections (c), (d), and (e), that are reasonably calculated to prevent abduction of the child, giving due consideration to the custody and visitation rights of the parties. The court shall consider the age of the child, the potential harm to the child from an abduction, the legal and practical difficulties of returning the child to the jurisdiction if abducted, and the reasons for the potential abduction, including evidence of domestic violence, stalking, or child abuse or neglect.

(c) An abduction prevention order may include one or more of the following:

(1) an imposition of travel restrictions that require that a party traveling with the child outside a designated geographical area provide the other party with the following:
(A) the travel itinerary of the child;
(B) a list of physical addresses and telephone numbers at which the child can be reached at specified times; and
(C) copies of all travel documents;
(2) a prohibition of the respondent directly or indirectly:
(A) removing the child from this state, the United States, or another geographic area without permission of the court or the petitioner’s written consent;
(B) removing or retaining the child in violation of a child-custody determination;
(C) removing the child from school or a child-care or similar facility; or
(D) approaching the child at any location other than a site designated for supervised visitation;
(3) a requirement that a party to register the order in another state as a prerequisite to allowing the child to travel to that state;
(4) with regard to the child’s passport:
(A) a direction that the petitioner to place the child’s name in the United States department of state’s child passport issuance alert program;
(B) a requirement that the respondent surrender to the court or the petitioner’s attorney any United States or foreign passport issued in the child’s name, including a passport issued in the name of both the parent and the child; and
(C) a prohibition upon the respondent from applying on behalf of the child for a new or replacement passport or visa;
(5) as a prerequisite to exercising custody or visitation, a requirement that the respondent provide:
(A) to the United States department of state office of children’s issues and the relevant foreign consulate or embassy, an authenticated copy of the order detailing passport and travel restrictions for the child;
(B) to the court:
(i) proof that the respondent has provided the information in subparagraph (A); and
(ii) an acknowledgment in a record from the relevant foreign consulate or embassy that no passport application has been made, or passport issued, on behalf of the child;
(C) to the petitioner, proof of registration with the United States embassy or other United States diplomatic presence in the destination country and with the central authority for the Hague Convention on the civil aspects of international child abduction, if that Convention is in effect between the United States and the destination country, unless one of the parties objects; and
(D) a written waiver under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. Section 552a, as amended, with respect to any document, application, or other information pertaining to the child authorizing its disclosure to the court and the petitioner; and
(6) upon the petitioner’s request, a requirement that the respondent obtain an order from the relevant foreign country containing terms identical to the child-custody determination issued in the United States.

(d) In an abduction prevention order, the court may impose conditions on the exercise of custody or visitation that:

(1) limit visitation or require that visitation with the child by the respondent be supervised until the court finds that supervision is no longer necessary and order the respondent to pay the costs of supervision;
(2) require the respondent to post a bond or provide other security in an amount sufficient to serve as a financial deterrent to abduction, the proceeds of which may be used to pay for the reasonable expenses of recovery of the child, including reasonable attorney’s fees and costs if there is an abduction; and
(3) require the respondent to obtain education on the potentially harmful effects to the child from abduction.

(e) To prevent imminent abduction of a child, a court may:

(1) issue a warrant to take physical custody of the child under K.S.A. 38- 13a09, and amendments thereto, or the law of this state other than this act;
(2) direct the use of law enforcement to take any action reasonably necessary to locate the child, obtain return of the child, or enforce a custody determination under this act or the law of this state other than this act; or
(3) grant any other relief allowed under the law of this state other than this act.

(f) The remedies provided in this act are cumulative and do not affect the availability of other remedies to prevent abduction.

(a) “Act” means K.S.A. 39-1430 et seq., and amendments thereto.

(b)(1) “Adult” means a person 18 years of age or older alleged to be unable to protect such person’s own interest and who is harmed or threatened with harm, whether financial, mental or physical in nature, through action or inaction by either another individual or through such person’s own action or inaction when:

(A) Such person is residing in such person’s own home, the home of a family member or the home of a friend;

(B) such person resides in an adult family home as defined in K.S.A. 39-1501, and amendments thereto; or

(C) such person is receiving services through:

(i) A provider of community services and affiliates thereof operated or funded by the Kansas department for children and families; or

(ii) the Kansas department for aging and disability services or a residential facility licensed pursuant to K.S.A. 39-2001 et seq., and amendments thereto.

(2) “Adult” does not include persons to whom K.S.A. 39-1401 et seq., and amendments thereto, apply.

(c) “Abuse” means any act or failure to act performed intentionally or recklessly that causes or is likely to cause harm to an adult, including:

(1) Infliction of physical or mental injury;

(2) any sexual act with an adult when the adult does not consent or when the other person knows or should know that the adult is incapable of resisting or declining consent to the sexual act due to mental deficiency or disease or due to fear of retribution or hardship;

(3) unreasonable use of a physical restraint, isolation or medication that harms or is likely to harm an adult;

(4) unreasonable use of a physical or chemical restraint, medication or isolation as punishment, for convenience, in conflict with a physician’s orders or as a substitute for treatment, except where such conduct or physical restraint is in furtherance of the health and safety of the adult; or

(5) a threat or menacing conduct directed toward an adult that results or might reasonably be expected to result in fear or emotional or mental distress to an adult.

(d) “Neglect” means the failure or omission by one’s self, caretaker or another person with a duty to supply or provide goods or services that are reasonably necessary to ensure safety and well-being and to avoid physical or mental harm or illness.

(e) “Financial exploitation” means the unlawful or improper use, control or withholding of an adult’s property, income, resources or trust funds by any other person or entity in a manner that is not for the profit of or to the advantage of the adult. “Financial exploitation” includes, but is not limited to:

(1) The use of deception, intimidation, coercion, extortion or undue influence by a person or entity to obtain or use an adult’s property, income, resources or trust funds in a manner for the profit of or to the advantage of such person or entity;

(2) the breach of a fiduciary duty, including, but not limited to, the misuse of a power of attorney, trust or a guardianship or conservatorship appointment, as it relates to the property, income, resources or trust funds of the adult; or

(3) the obtainment or use of an adult’s property, income, resources or trust funds, without lawful authority, by a person or entity who knows or clearly should know that the adult lacks the capacity to consent to the release or use of such adult’s property, income, resources or trust funds.

(f) “In need of protective services” means that an adult is unable to provide for or obtain services that are necessary to maintain physical or mental health or both.

(g) “Services that are necessary to maintain physical or mental health or both” include, but are not limited to, the provision of medical care for physical and mental health needs, the relocation of an adult to a facility or institution able to offer such care, assistance in personal hygiene, food, clothing, adequately heated and ventilated shelter, protection from health and safety hazards, protection from maltreatment the result of which includes, but is not limited to, malnutrition, deprivation of necessities or physical punishment and transportation necessary to secure any of the above stated needs, except that this term shall not include taking such person into custody without consent except as provided in this act.

(h) “Protective services” means services provided by the state or other governmental agency or by private organizations or individuals that are necessary to prevent abuse, neglect or financial exploitation. Such protective services include, but are not limited to, evaluation of the need for services, assistance in obtaining appropriate social services and assistance in securing medical and legal services.

(i) “Caretaker” means a person who has assumed the responsibility, whether legally or not, for an adult’s care or financial management or both.

(j) “Secretary” means the secretary for children and families.

(k) “Report” means a description or accounting of an incident or incidents of abuse, neglect or financial exploitation under this act and, for the purposes of this act, does not include any written assessment or findings.

(l) “Law enforcement” means the public office that is vested by law with the duty to maintain public order, make arrests for crimes, investigate criminal acts and file criminal charges, whether that duty extends to all crimes or is limited to specific crimes.

(m) “Involved adult” means the adult who is the subject of a report of abuse, neglect or financial exploitation under this act.

(n) “Legal representative,” “financial institution” and “governmental assistance provider” mean the same as defined in K.S.A. 39-1401, and amendments thereto.No person shall be considered to be abused, neglected, financially exploited or in need of protective services for the sole reason that such person relies upon spiritual means through prayer alone for treatment in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination in lieu of medical treatment.

As used in the protection from abuse act:

(a) “Abuse” means the occurrence of one or more of the following acts between intimate partners or household members:

(1) Intentionally attempting to cause bodily injury, or intentionally or recklessly causing bodily injury.

(2) Intentionally placing, by physical threat, another in fear of imminent bodily injury.

(3) Engaging in any sexual contact or attempted sexual contact with another person without consent or when such person is incapable of giving consent.

(4) Engaging in any of the following acts with a minor under 16 years of age who is not the spouse of the offender:

(A) The act of sexual intercourse; or

(B) any lewd fondling or touching of the person of either the minor or the offender, done or submitted to with the intent to arouse or to satisfy the sexual desires of either the minor or the offender, or both.

(b) “Intimate partners or household members” means persons who are or have been in a dating relationship, persons who reside together or who have formerly resided together or persons who have had a child in common.

(c) “Dating relationship” means a social relationship of a romantic nature. A dating relationship shall be presumed if a plaintiff verifies, pursuant to K.S.A. 53-601, and amendments thereto, that such relationship exists. In addition to any other factors the court deems relevant, the court shall consider the following factors in making a determination of whether a relationship exists or existed include:

(1) Nature of the relationship;

(2) length of time the relationship existed;

(3) frequency of interaction between the parties; and

(4) time since termination of the relationship, if applicable.

60-3104. Commencement of proceedings; persons seeking relief on behalf of minor child; forms; no docket fee; confidentiality of certain matters, exceptions

Currentness

(a) An intimate partner or household member may seek relief under the protection from abuse act by filing a verified petition with any judge of the district court or with the clerk of the court alleging abuse by another intimate partner or household member.

(b) The following persons may seek relief under the protection from abuse act on behalf of a minor child by filing a verified petition with any judge of the district court or with the clerk of the court alleging abuse by another intimate partner or household member: (1) A parent of the minor child; (2) an adult residing with the minor child; or (3) the child’s court-appointed legal custodian or court-appointed legal guardian.

(c) The clerk of the court shall supply the forms for the petition and orders, which shall be prescribed by the judicial council.

(d) Service of process served under this section shall be by personal service and not by certified mail return receipt requested. No docket fee shall be required for proceedings under the protection from abuse act.

(e) If the court finds that the plaintiff’s address or telephone number, or both, needs to remain confidential for the protection of the plaintiff, plaintiff’s minor children or minor children residing with the plaintiff, such information shall not be disclosed to the public, but only to authorized court or law enforcement personnel and to the commission on judicial performance in the discharge of the commission’s duties pursuant to article 32 of chapter 20 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto.

(a) Within 21 days of the filing of a petition under this act a hearing shall be held at which the plaintiff must prove the allegation of abuse by a preponderance of the evidence and the defendant shall have an opportunity to cross-examine the petitioner’s witnesses and present evidence on the defendant’s behalf. Upon the filing of the petition, the court shall set the case for hearing and advise the parties of the right to be represented by counsel.

(b) Prior to the hearing on the petition and upon a finding of good cause shown, the court on motion of a party may enter such temporary relief orders in accordance with subsection (a)(1), (2), (4) or (5) of K.S.A. 60-3107, and amendments thereto, or any combination thereof, as it deems necessary to protect the plaintiff or minor children from abuse. Temporary orders may be granted ex parte. Immediate and present danger of abuse to the plaintiff or minor children shall constitute good cause for purposes of this section. No temporary order shall have the effect of modifying an existing order granting legal custody, residency, visitation or parenting time unless there is sworn testimony at a hearing to support a showing of good cause.

(c) If a hearing under subsection (a) is continued, the court may make or extend such temporary orders under subsection (b) as it deems necessary.

A copy of any order under this act shall be issued to the plaintiff, the defendant and the police department of the city where the plaintiff resides. If the plaintiff does not reside in a city or resides in a city with no police department, a copy of the order shall be issued to the sheriff of the county where the order is issued or registered.

If, upon hearing, the court finds a violation of any order or consent agreement, the court may find the defendant in contempt pursuant to K.S.A. 20-1204a.

As used in the protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking act:

(a) “Human trafficking” means any act that would constitute human trafficking or aggravated human trafficking, as defined by K.S.A. 21-5426, and amendments thereto, or commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined by K.S.A. 21-6422, and amendments thereto, or an act that, if committed by an adult, would constitute selling sexual relations, as defined by K.S.A. 21-6419, and amendments thereto.

(b) “Human trafficking victim” means a person who has been subjected to an act that would constitute human trafficking or aggravated human trafficking, as defined by K.S.A. 21-5426, and amendments thereto, or commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined by K.S.A. 21-6422, and amendments thereto, or has committed an act that, if committed by an adult, would constitute selling sexual relations, as defined by K.S.A. 21-6419, and amendments thereto.

(c) “Sexual assault” means:

(1) A nonconsensual sexual act; or

(2) an attempted sexual act against another by force, threat of force, duress or when the person is incapable of giving consent.

(d) “Stalking” means an intentional harassment of another person that places the other person in reasonable fear for that person’s safety.

(1) “Harassment” means a knowing and intentional course of conduct directed at a specific person that seriously alarms, annoys, torments or terrorizes the person, and that serves no legitimate purpose. “Harassment” shall include any course of conduct carried out through the use of an unmanned aerial system over or near any dwelling, occupied vehicle or other place where one may reasonably expect to be safe from uninvited intrusion or surveillance.

(2) “Course of conduct” means conduct consisting of two or more separate acts over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of purpose which would cause a reasonable person to suffer substantial emotional distress. Constitutionally protected activity is not included within the meaning of “course of conduct.”

(e) “Unmanned aerial system” means a powered, aerial vehicle that:

(1) Does not carry a human operator;

(2) uses aerodynamic forces to provide vehicle lift;

(3) may fly autonomously or be piloted remotely;

(4) may be expendable or recoverable; and

(5) may carry a lethal or nonlethal payload.

(a) A person may seek relief under the protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking act by filing a verified petition with any judge of the district court or clerk of the court. A verified petition must allege facts sufficient to show the following:

(1) The name of the stalking victim, sexual assault victim or human trafficking victim;

(2) the name of the defendant;

(3) the dates on which the alleged stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking behavior occurred; and

(4) the acts committed by the defendant that are alleged to constitute stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking.

(b) The following persons may seek relief under the protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking act on behalf of a minor child by filing a verified petition with the judge of the district court or with the clerk of the court in the county where the stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking occurred: (1) A parent of the minor child; (2) an adult residing with the minor child; or (3) the child’s court-appointed legal custodian or court-appointed legal guardian.

(c) The following persons may seek relief for a minor child who is alleged to be a human trafficking victim under the protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking act on behalf of the minor child by filing a verified petition with any district judge or with the clerk of the court alleging acts committed by an individual that are alleged to constitute human trafficking: (1) A parent of the minor child; (2) an adult residing with the minor child; (3) the child’s court-appointed legal custodian or court-appointed legal guardian; (4) a county or district attorney; or (5) the attorney general.

(d) The clerk of the court shall supply the forms for the petition and orders, which shall be prescribed by the judicial council.

(e) Service of process served under this section shall be by personal service. No docket fee shall be required for proceedings under the protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking act.

(f) The victim’s address and telephone number shall not be disclosed to the defendant or to the public, but only to authorized court or law enforcement personnel and to the commission on judicial performance in the discharge of the commission’s duties pursuant to article 32 of chapter 20 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto.

(a) The court may issue a protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking order granting any one or more of the following orders:

(1) Restraining the defendant from following, harassing, telephoning, contacting or otherwise communicating with the victim. The order shall contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation may constitute stalking as defined in K.S.A. 21-5427, and amendments thereto, and violation of a protective order as defined in K.S.A. 21-5924, and amendments thereto.

(2) Restraining the defendant from abusing, molesting or interfering with the privacy rights of the victim. The order shall contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation may constitute stalking as defined in K.S.A. 21-5427, and amendments thereto, assault as defined in K.S.A. 21-5412(a), and amendments thereto, battery as defined in K.S.A. 21-5413(a), and amendments thereto, and violation of a protective order as defined in K.S.A. 21-5924, and amendments thereto.

(3) Restraining the defendant from entering upon or in the victim’s residence or the immediate vicinity thereof. The order shall contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation shall constitute criminal trespass as defined in K.S.A. 21-5808(a)(1)(C), and amendments thereto, and violation of a protective order as defined in K.S.A. 21-5924, and amendments thereto.

(4) Restraining the defendant from committing or attempting to commit a sexual assault upon the victim. The order shall contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation shall constitute violation of a protective order as defined in K.S.A. 21-5924, and amendments thereto. The order shall also contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation may constitute a sex offense under article 55 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, and the accused may be prosecuted, convicted of and punished for such sex offense.

(5) Restraining the defendant from following, harassing, telephoning, contacting, recruiting, harboring, transporting, or committing or attempting to commit human trafficking upon the human trafficking victim, or otherwise communicating with the human trafficking victim. The order shall contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation shall constitute violation of a protective order as defined in K.S.A. 21-5924, and amendments thereto. The order shall also contain a statement that, if the order is violated, the violation may constitute an offense under chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, and the accused may be prosecuted, convicted of and punished for such offense.

(6) Any other order deemed necessary by the court to carry out the provisions of this act.

(b) A protection from stalking, sexual abuse or human trafficking order shall remain in effect until modified or dismissed by the court and shall be for a fixed period of time not to exceed one year except as provided in subsections (c) and (d).

(c) Upon motion of the plaintiff the court may extend the order for an additional year.

(d) Upon verified motion of the plaintiff and after the defendant has been personally served with a copy of the motion and has had an opportunity to present evidence and cross-examine witnesses at a hearing on the motion, the court shall extend a protective order for not less than two additional years and up to a period of time not to exceed the lifetime of the defendant, if the court determines by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant has:

(1) Violated a valid protection order;

(2) previously violated a valid protection order; or

(3) been convicted of a person felony or any conspiracy, criminal solicitation or attempt thereof, under the laws of Kansas or the laws of any other jurisdiction which are substantially similar to such person felony, committed against the plaintiff or any member of the plaintiff’s household.

No service fee shall be required for a motion filed pursuant to this subsection.

(e) The court may amend its order at any time upon motion filed by either party.

(f) The court shall assess costs against the defendant and may award attorney fees to the victim in any case in which the court issues a protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking order pursuant to this act. The court may award attorney fees to the defendant in any case where the court finds that the petition to seek relief pursuant to this act is without merit.

(g) A no contact or restraining provision in a protective order issued pursuant to this section shall not be construed to prevent:

(1) Contact between the attorneys representing the parties;

(2) a party from appearing at a scheduled court or administrative hearing; or

(3) a defendant or defendant’s attorney from sending the plaintiff copies of any legal pleadings filed in court relating to civil or criminal matters presently relevant to the plaintiff.

Except as otherwise provided in the protection from stalking, sexual assault or human trafficking act, any proceedings under this act shall be in accordance with chapter 60 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, and shall be in addition to any other available civil or criminal remedies.

In this act, these terms mean the following:

(a) “Foreign protection order” means a protection order issued by a tribunal of another state.

(b) “Issuing state” means the state whose tribunal issues a protection order.

(c) “Mutual foreign protection order” means a foreign protection order that includes provisions in favor of both the protected individual seeking enforcement of the order and the respondent.

(d) “Protected individual” means an individual protected by a protection order.

(e) “Protection order” means an injunction or other temporary or final order issued, by a tribunal under the domestic violence, family violence or anti-stalking laws of the issuing state, broadly construed, to prevent an individual from engaging in violent or threatening acts against, harassment of, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to, another individual.

(f) “Respondent” means the individual against whom enforcement of a protection order is sought.

(g) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. The term includes an Indian tribe or band that has jurisdiction to issue protection orders.

(h) “Tribunal” means a court, agency or other entity authorized by law to issue or modify a protection order.

(a) A law enforcement officer of this state, upon determining that there is probable cause to believe that a valid foreign protection order exists and that the order has been violated, shall enforce the order as if it were the order of a court of this state. Presentation of a protection order that identifies both the protected individual and the respondent and, on its face, is currently in effect constitutes probable cause to believe that a valid foreign protection order exists. For the purposes of this section, the protection order may be inscribed on a tangible medium or may have been stored in an electronic or other medium if it is retrievable in perceivable form. Presentation of a certified copy of a protection order is not required for enforcement.

(b) If a foreign protection order is not presented, a law enforcement officer of this state may consider other information in determining whether there is probable cause to believe that a valid foreign protection order exists.

(c) If a law enforcement officer of this state determines that an otherwise valid foreign protection order cannot be enforced because the respondent has not been notified or served with the order, the officer shall inform the respondent of the order, make a reasonable effort to serve the order upon the respondent and allow the respondent a reasonable opportunity to comply with the order before enforcing the order.

(d) Registration or filing of an order in this state is not required for the enforcement of a valid foreign protection order pursuant to this act.

This state, a local governmental agency, a law enforcement officer, a prosecuting attorney, or any state or local governmental official acting in an official capacity is immune from civil and criminal liability for conduct arising out of the registration or enforcement of a foreign protection order or the detention or arrest of an alleged violator of a foreign protection order if the conduct was done in good faith in an effort to comply with this act.

This act applies to all protection orders issued and to continuing actions for enforcement of foreign protection orders commenced before and after July 1, 2005.