(1) A copy of any foreign judgment certified in accordance with the laws of the United States or of this state may be recorded in the office of the clerk of the circuit court of any county. The clerk shall file, record, and index the foreign judgment in the same manner as a judgment of a circuit or county court of this state. A judgment so recorded shall have the same effect and shall be subject to the same rules of civil procedure, legal and equitable defenses, and proceedings for reopening, vacating, or staying judgments, and it may be enforced, released, or satisfied, as a judgment of a circuit or county court of this state.

(2) Any person recording a foreign judgment shall pay to the clerk of the circuit court a service charge as is required for the recording of an original action demanding the relief or judgment granted in the foreign judgment.

A foreign judgment does not operate as a lien until 30 days after the mailing of notice by the clerk. When an action authorized in s. 55.509(1) is filed, it acts as an automatic stay of the effect of this section.

(1) Agency administration.–
(a) Examination questions and answer sheets of examinations administered by a governmental agency for the purpose of licensure, certification, or employment are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. A person who has taken such an examination has the right to review his or her own completed examination.
(b) 1. For purposes of this paragraph, “competitive solicitation” means the process of requesting and receiving sealed bids, proposals, or replies in accordance with the terms of a competitive process, regardless of the method of procurement.
2. Sealed bids, proposals, or replies received by an agency pursuant to a competitive solicitation are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution until such time as the agency provides notice of an intended decision or until 30 days after opening the bids, proposals, or final replies, whichever is earlier.
3. If an agency rejects all bids, proposals, or replies submitted in response to a competitive solicitation and the agency concurrently provides notice of its intent to reissue the competitive solicitation, the rejected bids, proposals, or replies remain exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution until such time as the agency provides notice of an intended decision concerning the reissued competitive solicitation or until the agency withdraws the reissued competitive solicitation. A bid, proposal, or reply is not exempt for longer than 12 months after the initial agency notice rejecting all bids, proposals, or replies.
<Paragraph (c) is repealed by its own terms on Oct. 2, 2029, unless saved from repealed by the Legislature.>
(c) Any financial statement or other financial information necessary to verify the financial adequacy of a prospective bidder which an agency requires a prospective bidder to submit in order to prequalify for bidding or for responding to a solicitation for a road or any other public works project is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(d) 1. A public record that was prepared by an agency attorney (including an attorney employed or retained by the agency or employed or retained by another public officer or agency to protect or represent the interests of the agency having custody of the record) or prepared at the attorney’s express direction, that reflects a mental impression, conclusion, litigation strategy, or legal theory of the attorney or the agency, and that was prepared exclusively for civil or criminal litigation or for adversarial administrative proceedings, or that was prepared in anticipation of imminent civil or criminal litigation or imminent adversarial administrative proceedings, is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution until the conclusion of the litigation or adversarial administrative proceedings. For purposes of capital collateral litigation as set forth in s. 27.7001, the Attorney General’s office is entitled to claim this exemption for those public records prepared for direct appeal as well as for all capital collateral litigation after direct appeal until execution of sentence or imposition of a life sentence.
2. This exemption is not waived by the release of such public record to another public employee or officer of the same agency or any person consulted by the agency attorney. When asserting the right to withhold a public record pursuant to this paragraph, the agency shall identify the potential parties to any such criminal or civil litigation or adversarial administrative proceedings. If a court finds that the document or other record has been improperly withheld under this paragraph, the party seeking access to such document or record shall be awarded reasonable attorney’s fees and costs in addition to any other remedy ordered by the court.
(e) Any videotape or video signal that, under an agreement with an agency, is produced, made, or received by, or is in the custody of, a federally licensed radio or television station or its agent is exempt from s. 119.07(1).
(f) Agency-produced data processing software that is sensitive is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. The designation of agency-produced software as sensitive does not prohibit an agency head from sharing or exchanging such software with another public agency.
(g) 1. Information relating to communications services locations, project proposals, and challenges submitted to the Department of Commerce under s. 288.9962 or pursuant to a federal broadband access grant program implemented by the Department of Commerce is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution if such information is not otherwise publicly available and the release of such information would reveal:
a. The location or capacity of communications network facilities;
b. Communications network areas, including geographical maps indicating actual or proposed locations of network infrastructure or facilities;
c. The features, functions, and capabilities of communications network infrastructure and facilities;
d. Security, including cybersecurity, of the design, construction, and operation of the communications network and associated services and products;
e. Specific customer locations; or
f. Sources of funding or in-kind contributions for a project.
2. This exemption does not apply to any required functions of the department under s. 288.9962 relating to publishing a description of the proposed unserved areas to be served and the proposed broadband Internet speeds of the areas to be served as provided by the applicant and approved by the department.
3. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2028, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(2) Agency investigations.–
(a) All criminal intelligence and criminal investigative information received by a criminal justice agency prior to January 25, 1979, is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(b) Whenever criminal intelligence information or criminal investigative information held by a non-Florida criminal justice agency is available to a Florida criminal justice agency only on a confidential or similarly restricted basis, the Florida criminal justice agency may obtain and use such information in accordance with the conditions imposed by the providing agency.
(c) 1. Active criminal intelligence information and active criminal investigative information are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
2. a. A request made by a law enforcement agency to inspect or copy a public record that is in the custody of another agency and the custodian’s response to the request, and any information that would identify whether a law enforcement agency has requested or received that public record are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, during the period in which the information constitutes active criminal intelligence information or active criminal investigative information.
b. The law enforcement agency that made the request to inspect or copy a public record shall give notice to the custodial agency when the criminal intelligence information or criminal investigative information is no longer active so that the request made by the law enforcement agency, the custodian’s response to the request, and information that would identify whether the law enforcement agency had requested or received that public record are available to the public.
c. This exemption is remedial in nature, and it is the intent of the Legislature that the exemption be applied to requests for information received before, on, or after the effective date of this paragraph.
(d) Any information revealing surveillance techniques or procedures or personnel is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Any comprehensive inventory of state and local law enforcement resources compiled pursuant to part I, chapter 23, and any comprehensive policies or plans compiled by a criminal justice agency pertaining to the mobilization, deployment, or tactical operations involved in responding to an emergency, as defined in s. 252.34, are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution and unavailable for inspection, except by personnel authorized by a state or local law enforcement agency, the office of the Governor, the Department of Legal Affairs, the Department of Law Enforcement, or the Division of Emergency Management as having an official need for access to the inventory or comprehensive policies or plans.
(e) Any information revealing the substance of a confession of a person arrested is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, until such time as the criminal case is finally determined by adjudication, dismissal, or other final disposition.
(f) Any information revealing the identity of a confidential informant or a confidential source is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(g) 1. All complaints and other records in the custody of any agency which relate to a complaint of discrimination relating to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or marital status in connection with hiring practices, position classifications, salary, benefits, discipline, discharge, employee performance, evaluation, or other related activities are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution until a finding is made relating to probable cause, the investigation of the complaint becomes inactive, or the complaint or other record is made part of the official record of any hearing or court proceeding.
a. This exemption does not affect any function or activity of the Florida Commission on Human Relations.
b. Any state or federal agency that is authorized to have access to such complaints or records by any provision of law shall be granted such access in the furtherance of such agency’s statutory duties.
2. If an alleged victim chooses not to file a complaint and requests that records of the complaint remain confidential, all records relating to an allegation of employment discrimination are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(h) 1. The following criminal intelligence information or criminal investigative information is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution:
a. Any information that reveals the identity of the victim of the crime of child abuse as defined by chapter 827 or that reveals the identity of a person under the age of 18 who is the victim of the crime of human trafficking proscribed in s. 787.06(3)(a).
b. Any information that may reveal the identity of a person who is a victim of any sexual offense, including a sexual offense proscribed in s. 787.06(3)(b), (d), (f), or (g), chapter 794, chapter 796, chapter 800, chapter 827, or chapter 847.
c. A photograph, videotape, or image of any part of the body of the victim of a sexual offense prohibited under s. 787.06(3)(b), (d), (f), or (g), chapter 794, chapter 796, chapter 800, s. 810.145, chapter 827, or chapter 847, regardless of whether the photograph, videotape, or image identifies the victim.
2. Criminal investigative information and criminal intelligence information made confidential and exempt under this paragraph may be disclosed by a law enforcement agency:
a. In the furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities.
b. For print, publication, or broadcast if the law enforcement agency determines that such release would assist in locating or identifying a person that such agency believes to be missing or endangered. The information provided should be limited to that needed to identify or locate the victim and not include the sexual nature of the offense committed against the person.
c. To another governmental agency in the furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities.
3. This exemption applies to such confidential and exempt criminal intelligence information or criminal investigative information held by a law enforcement agency before, on, or after the effective date of the exemption.
(i) Any criminal intelligence information or criminal investigative information that reveals the personal assets of the victim of a crime, other than property stolen or destroyed during the commission of the crime, is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(j) 1. Any document that reveals the identity, home or employment telephone number, home or employment address, or personal assets of the victim of a crime and identifies that person as the victim of a crime, which document is received by any agency that regularly receives information from or concerning the victims of crime, is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Any information not otherwise held confidential or exempt from s. 119.07(1) which reveals the home or employment telephone number, home or employment address, or personal assets of a person who has been the victim of sexual battery, aggravated child abuse, aggravated stalking, harassment, aggravated battery, or domestic violence is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, upon written request by the victim, which must include official verification that an applicable crime has occurred. Such information shall cease to be exempt 5 years after the receipt of the written request. Any state or federal agency that is authorized to have access to such documents by any provision of law shall be granted such access in the furtherance of such agency’s statutory duties, notwithstanding this section.
2. a. Any information in a videotaped statement of a minor who is alleged to be or who is a victim of sexual battery, lewd acts, or other sexual misconduct proscribed in chapter 800 or in s. 794.011, s. 827.071, s. 847.012, s. 847.0125, s. 847.013, s. 847.0133, or s. 847.0145, which reveals that minor’s identity, including, but not limited to, the minor’s face; the minor’s home, school, church, or employment telephone number; the minor’s home, school, church, or employment address; the name of the minor’s school, church, or place of employment; or the personal assets of the minor; and which identifies that minor as the victim of a crime described in this subparagraph, held by a law enforcement agency, is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. Any governmental agency that is authorized to have access to such statements by any provision of law shall be granted such access in the furtherance of the agency’s statutory duties, notwithstanding the provisions of this section.
b. A public employee or officer who has access to a videotaped statement of a minor who is alleged to be or who is a victim of sexual battery, lewd acts, or other sexual misconduct proscribed in chapter 800 or in s. 794.011, s. 827.071, s. 847.012, s. 847.0125, s. 847.013, s. 847.0133, or s. 847.0145 may not willfully and knowingly disclose videotaped information that reveals the minor’s identity to a person who is not assisting in the investigation or prosecution of the alleged offense or to any person other than the defendant, the defendant’s attorney, or a person specified in an order entered by the court having jurisdiction of the alleged offense. A person who violates this provision commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
(k) A complaint of misconduct filed with an agency against an agency employee and all information obtained pursuant to an investigation by the agency of the complaint of misconduct is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution until the investigation ceases to be active, or until the agency provides written notice to the employee who is the subject of the complaint, either personally or by mail, that the agency has either:
1. Concluded the investigation with a finding not to proceed with disciplinary action or file charges; or
2. Concluded the investigation with a finding to proceed with disciplinary action or file charges.
(l) 1. As used in this paragraph, the term:
a. “Body camera” means a portable electronic recording device that is worn on a law enforcement officer’s body and that records audio and video data in the course of the officer performing his or her official duties and responsibilities.
b. “Law enforcement officer” has the same meaning as provided in s. 943.10.
c. “Personal representative” means a parent, a court-appointed guardian, an attorney, or an agent of, or a person holding a power of attorney for, a person recorded by a body camera. If a person depicted in the recording is deceased, the term also means the personal representative of the estate of the deceased person; the deceased person’s surviving spouse, parent, or adult child; the deceased person’s attorney or agent; or the parent or guardian of a surviving minor child of the deceased. An agent must possess written authorization of the recorded person to act on his or her behalf.
2. A body camera recording, or a portion thereof, is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution if the recording:
a. Is taken within the interior of a private residence;
b. Is taken within the interior of a facility that offers health care, mental health care, or social services; or
c. Is taken in a place that a reasonable person would expect to be private.
3. Notwithstanding subparagraph 2., a body camera recording, or a portion thereof, may be disclosed by a law enforcement agency:
a. In furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities; or
b. To another governmental agency in the furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities.
4. Notwithstanding subparagraph 2., a body camera recording, or a portion thereof, shall be disclosed by a law enforcement agency:
a. To a person recorded by a body camera; however, a law enforcement agency may disclose only those portions that are relevant to the person’s presence in the recording;
b. To the personal representative of a person recorded by a body camera; however, a law enforcement agency may disclose only those portions that are relevant to the represented person’s presence in the recording;
c. To a person not depicted in a body camera recording if the recording depicts a place in which the person lawfully resided, dwelled, or lodged at the time of the recording; however, a law enforcement agency may disclose only those portions that record the interior of such a place.
d. Pursuant to a court order.
(I) In addition to any other grounds the court may consider in determining whether to order that a body camera recording be disclosed, the court shall consider whether:
(A) Disclosure is necessary to advance a compelling interest;
(B) The recording contains information that is otherwise exempt or confidential and exempt under the law;
(C) The person requesting disclosure is seeking to obtain evidence to determine legal issues in a case in which the person is a party;
(D) Disclosure would reveal information regarding a person that is of a highly sensitive personal nature;
(E) Disclosure may harm the reputation or jeopardize the safety of a person depicted in the recording;
(F) Confidentiality is necessary to prevent a serious and imminent threat to the fair, impartial, and orderly administration of justice;
(G) The recording could be redacted to protect privacy interests; and
(H) There is good cause to disclose all or portions of a recording.
(II) In any proceeding regarding the disclosure of a body camera recording, the law enforcement agency that made the recording shall be given reasonable notice of hearings and shall be given an opportunity to participate.
5. A law enforcement agency must retain a body camera recording for at least 90 days.
6. The exemption provided in subparagraph 2. applies retroactively.
7. This exemption does not supersede any other public records exemption that existed before or is created after the effective date of this exemption. Those portions of a recording which are protected from disclosure by another public records exemption shall continue to be exempt or confidential and exempt.
(m) Criminal intelligence information or criminal investigative information that reveals the personal identifying information of a witness to a murder, as described in s. 782.04, is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution for 2 years after the date on which the murder is observed by the witness. A criminal justice agency may disclose such information:
1. In the furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities.
2. To assist in locating or identifying the witness if the agency believes the witness to be missing or endangered.
3. To another governmental agency for use in the performance of its official duties and responsibilities.
4. To the parties in a pending criminal prosecution as required by law.
(n) Personal identifying information of the alleged victim in an allegation of sexual harassment or the victim of sexual harassment is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution if such information identifies that person as an alleged victim or as a victim of sexual harassment. Confidentiality may be waived in writing by the alleged victim or the victim. Such information may be disclosed to another governmental entity in the furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2027, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(o) The address of a victim of an incident of mass violence is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “incident of mass violence” means an incident in which four or more people, not including the perpetrator, are severely injured or killed by an intentional and indiscriminate act of violence of another. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “victim” means a person killed or injured during an incident of mass violence, not including the perpetrator.
(p) 1. As used in this paragraph, the term:
a. “Killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties” means all acts or events that cause or otherwise relate to the death of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, including any related acts or events immediately preceding or subsequent to the acts or events that were the proximate cause of death.
b. “Killing of a minor” means all acts or events that cause or otherwise relate to the death of a victim who has not yet reached the age of 18 at the time of the death, including any related acts or events immediately preceding or subsequent to the acts or events that were the proximate cause of the death of a victim under the age of 18, events that depict a victim under the age of 18 being killed, or events that depict the body of a victim under the age of 18 who has been killed.
c. “Killing of a victim of mass violence” means events that depict either a victim being killed or the body of a victim killed in an incident in which three or more persons, not including the perpetrator, are killed by the perpetrator of an intentional act of violence.
d. “Suicide of a person” means events that depict the suicide of a person, the body of a person whose manner of death was suicide, or any portion of such person’s body.
2. a. A photograph or video or audio recording that depicts or records the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties or the killing of a victim of mass violence is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, except that a surviving spouse of the decedent may view and copy any such photograph or video recording or listen to or copy any such audio recording. If there is no surviving spouse, the surviving parents shall have access to such records. If there is no surviving spouse or parent, the adult children shall have access to such records. Nothing in this sub-subparagraph precludes a surviving spouse, parent, or adult child of the victim from sharing or publicly releasing such photograph or video or audio recording.
b. A photograph or video or audio recording that depicts or records the killing of a minor is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, except that a surviving parent of the deceased minor may view and copy any such photograph or video recording or listen to or copy any such audio recording. Nothing in this sub-subparagraph precludes a surviving parent of the victim from sharing or publicly releasing such photograph or video or audio recording.
c. A photograph or video or audio recording that depicts or records the suicide of a person is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, except that a surviving spouse of the deceased may view and copy any such photograph or video recording or listen to or copy any such audio recording. If there is no surviving spouse, the surviving parents must have access to such records. If there is no surviving spouse or parent, the adult children and siblings must have access to such records. This section does not preclude a surviving spouse, parent, adult child, or sibling of the victim from sharing or publicly releasing such photograph or video or audio recording.
3. a. The deceased’s surviving relative, with whom authority rests to obtain such records, may designate in writing an agent to obtain such records.
b. Notwithstanding subparagraph 2., a local governmental entity, or a state or federal agency, in furtherance of its official duties, pursuant to a written request, may view or copy a photograph or video recording or may listen to or copy an audio recording of the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person, and, unless otherwise required in the performance of its duties, the identity of the deceased shall remain confidential and exempt.
c. The custodian of the record, or his or her designee, may not permit any other person to view or copy such photograph or video recording or listen to or copy such audio recording without a court order.
4. a. The court, upon a showing of good cause, may issue an order authorizing any person to view or copy a photograph or video recording that depicts or records the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person or to listen to or copy an audio recording that depicts or records the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person and may prescribe any restrictions or stipulations that the court deems appropriate.
b. In determining good cause, the court shall consider:
(I) Whether such disclosure is necessary for the public evaluation of governmental performance;
(II) The seriousness of the intrusion into the family’s right to privacy and whether such disclosure is the least intrusive means available; and
(III) The availability of similar information in other public records, regardless of form.
c. In all cases, the viewing, copying, listening to, or other handling of a photograph or video or audio recording that depicts or records the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person must be under the direct supervision of the custodian of the record or his or her designee.
5. a. A surviving spouse shall be given reasonable notice of a petition filed with the court to view or copy a photograph or video recording that depicts or records the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties or the killing of a victim of mass violence, or to listen to or copy any such audio recording, a copy of such petition, and reasonable notice of the opportunity to be present and heard at any hearing on the matter. If there is no surviving spouse, such notice must be given to the parents of the deceased and, if there is no surviving parent, to the adult children of the deceased.
b. A surviving parent must be given reasonable notice of a petition filed with the court to view or copy a photograph or video recording that depicts or records the killing of a minor or to listen to or copy any such audio recording; a copy of such petition; and reasonable notice of the opportunity to be present and heard at any hearing on the matter.
c. A surviving spouse shall be given reasonable notice of a petition filed with the court to view or copy a photograph or video recording that depicts or records the suicide of a person, or to listen to or copy any such audio recording; a copy of such petition; and reasonable notice of the opportunity to be present and heard at any hearing on the matter. If there is no surviving spouse, such notice must be given to the parents of the deceased and, if there is no surviving parent, to the adult children and siblings of the deceased.
6. a. Any custodian of a photograph or video or audio recording that depicts or records the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person who willfully and knowingly violates this paragraph commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
b. Any person who willfully and knowingly violates a court order issued pursuant to this paragraph commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
c. A criminal or administrative proceeding is exempt from this paragraph but, unless otherwise exempted, is subject to all other provisions of chapter 119; however, this paragraph does not prohibit a court in a criminal or administrative proceeding upon good cause shown from restricting or otherwise controlling the disclosure of a killing, crime scene, or similar photograph or video or audio recording in the manner prescribed in this paragraph.
7. The exemptions in this paragraph shall be given retroactive application and shall apply to all photographs or video or audio recordings that depict or record the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person, regardless of whether the killing or suicide of the person occurred before, on, or after May 23, 2019. However, nothing in this paragraph is intended to, nor may be construed to, overturn or abrogate or alter any existing orders duly entered into by any court of this state, as of the effective date of this act, which restrict or limit access to any photographs or video or audio recordings that depict or record the killing of a law enforcement officer who was acting in accordance with his or her official duties, the killing of a victim of mass violence, the killing of a minor, or the suicide of a person.
8. This paragraph applies only to such photographs and video and audio recordings held by an agency.
9. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(q) 1. As used in this paragraph, the term:
a. “Conviction integrity unit” means a unit within a state attorney’s office established for the purpose of reviewing plausible claims of actual innocence.
b. “Conviction integrity unit reinvestigation information” means information or materials generated during a new investigation by a conviction integrity unit following the unit’s formal written acceptance of an applicant’s case. The term does not include:
(I) Information, materials, or records generated by a state attorney’s office during an investigation done for the purpose of responding to motions made pursuant to Rule 3.800, Rule 3.850, or Rule 3.853, Florida Rules of Criminal Procedure, or any other collateral proceeding.
(II) Petitions by applicants to the conviction integrity unit.
(III) Criminal investigative information generated before the commencement of a conviction integrity unit investigation which is not otherwise exempt from this section.
2. Conviction integrity unit reinvestigation information is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution for a reasonable period of time during an active, ongoing, and good faith investigation of a claim of actual innocence in a case that previously resulted in the conviction of the accused person and until the claim is no longer capable of further investigation. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2026, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(r) 1. As used in this paragraph, the term:
a. “DNA record” means all information associated with the collection and analysis of a person’s DNA sample, including the distinguishing characteristics collectively referred to as a DNA profile, and includes a single nucleotide polymorphism and a whole genome sequencing DNA profile.
b. “Genetic genealogy” means the use of DNA testing in combination with traditional genealogical methods to infer relationships between persons and determine ancestry.
c. “Investigative genetic genealogy” means the application of genetic genealogy and law enforcement investigative techniques to develop investigative leads in unsolved violent crimes and provide investigative leads as to the identity of unidentified human remains and living unidentified missing persons.
d. “Investigative genetic genealogy information and materials” means the information, records, and DNA records created or collected by or on behalf of a law enforcement agency conducting investigative genetic genealogy research, and includes the names and personal identifying information of persons identified through the use of genealogy databases, traditional genealogical methods, or other investigative means. The term does not include the name or personal identifying information of:
(I) The donor of a biological sample attributable to a perpetrator; or
(II) A person identified through investigative genetic genealogy who is a witness to or has personal knowledge related to the crime under investigation.
e. “Traditional genealogical methods” means the use of genealogical databases and historical records to trace the family lineage of a person.
2. Investigative genetic genealogy information and materials are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
3. Notwithstanding subparagraph 2., a law enforcement agency:
a. May disclose investigative genetic genealogy information and materials in furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities or to another governmental agency in the furtherance of its official duties and responsibilities.
b. Shall disclose investigative genetic genealogy information and materials pursuant to a court order for furtherance of a criminal prosecution. If a court orders the disclosure of such information and materials, the recipient of the information and materials must maintain the confidential and exempt status of the information and materials and may only publicly disclose the information and materials as necessary for purposes of a criminal prosecution as determined by the court.
4. The exemption in this paragraph applies to investigative genetic genealogy information and materials held by an agency before, on, or after July 1, 2023.
5. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2028, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(3) Security and firesafety.–
(a) 1. As used in this paragraph, the term “security or firesafety system plan” includes all:
a. Records, information, photographs, audio and visual presentations, schematic diagrams, surveys, recommendations, or consultations or portions thereof relating directly to the physical security or firesafety of the facility or revealing security or firesafety systems;
b. Threat assessments conducted by any agency or any private entity;
c. Threat response plans;
d. Emergency evacuation plans;
e. Sheltering arrangements; or
f. Manuals for security or firesafety personnel, emergency equipment, or security or firesafety training.
2. A security or firesafety system plan or portion thereof for:
a. Any property owned by or leased to the state or any of its political subdivisions; or
b. Any privately owned or leased property

held by an agency is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption is remedial in nature, and it is the intent of the Legislature that this exemption apply to security or firesafety system plans held by an agency before, on, or after April 6, 2018.
3. Information made confidential and exempt by this paragraph may be disclosed:
a. To the property owner or leaseholder;
b. In furtherance of the official duties and responsibilities of the agency holding the information;
c. To another local, state, or federal agency in furtherance of that agency’s official duties and responsibilities; or
d. Upon a showing of good cause before a court of competent jurisdiction.
(b) 1. Building plans, blueprints, schematic drawings, and diagrams, including draft, preliminary, and final formats, which depict the internal layout and structural elements of a building, arena, stadium, water treatment facility, or other structure owned or operated by an agency are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
2. This exemption applies to building plans, blueprints, schematic drawings, and diagrams, including draft, preliminary, and final formats, which depict the internal layout and structural elements of a building, arena, stadium, water treatment facility, or other structure owned or operated by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this act.
3. Information made exempt by this paragraph may be disclosed:
a. To another governmental entity if disclosure is necessary for the receiving entity to perform its duties and responsibilities;
b. To a licensed architect, engineer, or contractor who is performing work on or related to the building, arena, stadium, water treatment facility, or other structure owned or operated by an agency; or
c. Upon a showing of good cause before a court of competent jurisdiction.
4. The entities or persons receiving such information shall maintain the exempt status of the information.
(c) 1. Building plans, blueprints, schematic drawings, and diagrams, including draft, preliminary, and final formats, which depict the internal layout or structural elements of an attractions and recreation facility, entertainment or resort complex, industrial complex, retail and service development, office development, health care facility, or hotel or motel development, which records are held by an agency are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
2. This exemption applies to any such records held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this act.
3. This paragraph does not apply to comprehensive plans or site plans, or amendments thereto, which are submitted for approval or which have been approved under local land development regulations, local zoning regulations, or development-of-regional-impact review.
4. As used in this paragraph, the term:
a. “Attractions and recreation facility” means any sports, entertainment, amusement, or recreation facility, including, but not limited to, a sports arena, stadium, racetrack, tourist attraction, amusement park, or pari-mutuel facility that:
(I) For single-performance facilities:
(A) Provides single-performance facilities; or
(B) Provides more than 10,000 permanent seats for spectators.
(II) For serial-performance facilities:
(A) Provides parking spaces for more than 1,000 motor vehicles; or
(B) Provides more than 4,000 permanent seats for spectators.
b. “Entertainment or resort complex” means a theme park comprised of at least 25 acres of land with permanent exhibitions and a variety of recreational activities, which has at least 1 million visitors annually who pay admission fees thereto, together with any lodging, dining, and recreational facilities located adjacent to, contiguous to, or in close proximity to the theme park, as long as the owners or operators of the theme park, or a parent or related company or subsidiary thereof, has an equity interest in the lodging, dining, or recreational facilities or is in privity therewith. Close proximity includes an area within a 5-mile radius of the theme park complex.
c. “Industrial complex” means any industrial, manufacturing, processing, distribution, warehousing, or wholesale facility or plant, as well as accessory uses and structures, under common ownership that:
(I) Provides onsite parking for more than 250 motor vehicles;
(II) Encompasses 500,000 square feet or more of gross floor area; or
(III) Occupies a site of 100 acres or more, but excluding wholesale facilities or plants that primarily serve or deal onsite with the general public.
d. “Retail and service development” means any retail, service, or wholesale business establishment or group of establishments which deals primarily with the general public onsite and is operated under one common property ownership, development plan, or management that:
(I) Encompasses more than 400,000 square feet of gross floor area; or
(II) Provides parking spaces for more than 2,500 motor vehicles.
e. “Office development” means any office building or park operated under common ownership, development plan, or management that encompasses 300,000 or more square feet of gross floor area.
f. “Health care facility” means a hospital, ambulatory surgical center, nursing home, hospice, or intermediate care facility for the developmentally disabled.
g. “Hotel or motel development” means any hotel or motel development that accommodates 350 or more units.
(d) Information relating to the Nationwide Public Safety Broadband Network established pursuant to 47 U.S.C. ss. 1401 et seq., held by an agency is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution if release of such information would reveal:
1. The design, development, construction, deployment, and operation of network facilities;
2. Network coverage, including geographical maps indicating actual or proposed locations of network infrastructure or facilities;
3. The features, functions, and capabilities of network infrastructure and facilities;
4. The features, functions, and capabilities of network services provided to first responders, as defined in s. 112.1815, and other network users;
5. The design, features, functions, and capabilities of network devices provided to first responders and other network users; or
6. Security, including cybersecurity, of the design, construction, and operation of the network and associated services and products.
(e) 1. a. Building plans, blueprints, schematic drawings, and diagrams, including draft, preliminary, and final formats, which depict the structural elements of 911, E911, or public safety radio communication system infrastructure, including towers, antennae, equipment or facilities used to provide 911, E911, or public safety radio communication services, or other 911, E911, or public safety radio communication structures or facilities owned and operated by an agency are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
b. Geographical maps indicating the actual or proposed locations of 911, E911, or public safety radio communication system infrastructure, including towers, antennae, equipment or facilities used to provide 911, E911, or public safety radio services, or other 911, E911, or public safety radio communication structures or facilities owned and operated by an agency are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
2. This exemption applies to building plans, blueprints, schematic drawings, and diagrams, including draft, preliminary, and final formats, which depict the structural elements of 911, E911, or public safety radio communication system infrastructure or other 911, E911, or public safety radio communication structures or facilities owned and operated by an agency, and geographical maps indicating actual or proposed locations of 911, E911, or public safety radio communication system infrastructure or other 911, E911, or public safety radio communication structures or facilities owned and operated by an agency, before, on, or after the effective date of this act.
3. Information made exempt by this paragraph may be disclosed:
a. To another governmental entity if disclosure is necessary for the receiving entity to perform its duties and responsibilities;
b. To a licensed architect, engineer, or contractor who is performing work on or related to the 911, E911, or public safety radio communication system infrastructure, including towers, antennae, equipment or facilities used to provide 911, E911, or public safety radio communication services, or other 911, E911, or public safety radio communication structures or facilities owned and operated by an agency; or
c. Upon a showing of good cause before a court of competent jurisdiction.
4. The entities or persons receiving such information must maintain the exempt status of the information.
5. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “public safety radio” is defined as the means of communication between and among 911 public safety answering points, dispatchers, and first responder agencies using those portions of the radio frequency spectrum designated by the Federal Communications Commission under 47 C.F.R. part 90 for public safety purposes.
6. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2025, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(4) Agency personnel information.–
(a) 1. The social security numbers of all current and former agency employees which are held by the employing agency are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
2. The social security numbers of current and former agency employees may be disclosed by the employing agency:
a. If disclosure of the social security number is expressly required by federal or state law or a court order.
b. To another agency or governmental entity if disclosure of the social security number is necessary for the receiving agency or entity to perform its duties and responsibilities.
c. If the current or former agency employee expressly consents in writing to the disclosure of his or her social security number.
(b) 1. Medical information pertaining to a prospective, current, or former officer or employee of an agency which, if disclosed, would identify that officer or employee is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. However, such information may be disclosed if the person to whom the information pertains or the person’s legal representative provides written permission or pursuant to court order.
2. a. Personal identifying information of a dependent child of a current or former officer or employee of an agency, which dependent child is insured by an agency group insurance plan, is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. For purposes of this exemption, “dependent child” has the same meaning as in s. 409.2554.
b. This exemption is remedial in nature and applies to such personal identifying information held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.
(c) Any information revealing undercover personnel of any criminal justice agency is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(d) 1. For purposes of this paragraph, the term:
a. “Home addresses” means the dwelling location at which an individual resides and includes the physical address, mailing address, street address, parcel identification number, plot identification number, legal property description, neighborhood name and lot number, GPS coordinates, and any other descriptive property information that may reveal the home address.
b. “Judicial assistant” means a court employee assigned to the following class codes: 8140, 8150, 8310, and 8320.
c. “Telephone numbers” includes home telephone numbers, personal cellular telephone numbers, personal pager telephone numbers, and telephone numbers associated with personal communications devices.
2. a. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of active or former sworn law enforcement personnel or of active or former civilian personnel employed by a law enforcement agency, including correctional and correctional probation officers, personnel of the Department of Children and Families whose duties include the investigation of abuse, neglect, exploitation, fraud, theft, or other criminal activities, personnel of the Department of Health whose duties are to support the investigation of child abuse or neglect, and personnel of the Department of Revenue or local governments whose responsibilities include revenue collection and enforcement or child support enforcement; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, photographs, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
b. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former nonsworn investigative personnel of the Department of Financial Services whose duties include the investigation of fraud, theft, workers’ compensation coverage requirements and compliance, other related criminal activities, or state regulatory requirement violations; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
c. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former nonsworn investigative personnel of the Office of Financial Regulation’s Bureau of Financial Investigations whose duties include the investigation of fraud, theft, other related criminal activities, or state regulatory requirement violations; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
d. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former firefighters certified in compliance with s. 633.408; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, photographs, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such firefighters; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such firefighters are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
e. The home addresses, dates of birth, and telephone numbers of current or former justices of the Supreme Court, district court of appeal judges, circuit court judges, and county court judges and current judicial assistants; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of current or former justices and judges and current judicial assistants; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of current or former justices and judges and1 current judicial assistants are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This sub-subparagraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2028, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
f. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former state attorneys, assistant state attorneys, statewide prosecutors, or assistant statewide prosecutors; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, photographs, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of current or former state attorneys, assistant state attorneys, statewide prosecutors, or assistant statewide prosecutors; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of current or former state attorneys, assistant state attorneys, statewide prosecutors, or assistant statewide prosecutors are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
g. The home addresses, dates of birth, and telephone numbers of general magistrates, special magistrates, judges of compensation claims, administrative law judges of the Division of Administrative Hearings, and child support enforcement hearing officers; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of general magistrates, special magistrates, judges of compensation claims, administrative law judges of the Division of Administrative Hearings, and child support enforcement hearing officers; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of general magistrates, special magistrates, judges of compensation claims, administrative law judges of the Division of Administrative Hearings, and child support enforcement hearing officers are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
h. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former human resource, labor relations, or employee relations directors, assistant directors, managers, or assistant managers of any local government agency or water management district whose duties include hiring and firing employees, labor contract negotiation, administration, or other personnel-related duties; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
i. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former code enforcement officers; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
j. The home addresses, telephone numbers, places of employment, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former guardians ad litem, as defined in s. 39.01; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such persons; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such persons are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
k. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former juvenile probation officers, juvenile probation supervisors, detention superintendents, assistant detention superintendents, juvenile justice detention officers I and II, juvenile justice detention officer supervisors, juvenile justice residential officers, juvenile justice residential officer supervisors I and II, juvenile justice counselors, juvenile justice counselor supervisors, human services counselor administrators, senior human services counselor administrators, rehabilitation therapists, and social services counselors of the Department of Juvenile Justice; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
l. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former public defenders, assistant public defenders, criminal conflict and civil regional counsel, and assistant criminal conflict and civil regional counsel; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of current or former public defenders, assistant public defenders, criminal conflict and civil regional counsel, and assistant criminal conflict and civil regional counsel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of current or former public defenders, assistant public defenders, criminal conflict and civil regional counsel, and assistant criminal conflict and civil regional counsel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
m. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former investigators or inspectors of the Department of Business and Professional Regulation; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such current or former investigators and inspectors; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such current or former investigators and inspectors are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
n. The home addresses, telephone numbers, and dates of birth of county tax collectors; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such tax collectors; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such tax collectors are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
o. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former personnel of the Department of Health whose duties include, or result in, the determination or adjudication of eligibility for social security disability benefits, the investigation or prosecution of complaints filed against health care practitioners, or the inspection of health care practitioners or health care facilities licensed by the Department of Health; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
p. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former impaired practitioner consultants who are retained by an agency or current or former employees of an impaired practitioner consultant whose duties result in a determination of a person’s skill and safety to practice a licensed profession; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such consultants or their employees; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such consultants or employees are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
q. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former emergency medical technicians or paramedics certified under chapter 401; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such emergency medical technicians or paramedics; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such emergency medical technicians or paramedics are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
r. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former personnel employed in an agency’s office of inspector general or internal audit department whose duties include auditing or investigating waste, fraud, abuse, theft, exploitation, or other activities that could lead to criminal prosecution or administrative discipline; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
s. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former directors, managers, supervisors, nurses, and clinical employees of an addiction treatment facility; the home addresses, telephone numbers, photographs, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. For purposes of this sub-subparagraph, the term “addiction treatment facility” means a county government, or agency thereof, that is licensed pursuant to s. 397.401 and provides substance abuse prevention, intervention, or clinical treatment, including any licensed service component described in s. 397.311(27).
t. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former directors, managers, supervisors, and clinical employees of a child advocacy center that meets the standards of s. 39.3035(2) and fulfills the screening requirement of s. 39.3035(3), and the members of a Child Protection Team as described in s. 39.303 whose duties include supporting the investigation of child abuse or sexual abuse, child abandonment, child neglect, and child exploitation or to provide services as part of a multidisciplinary case review team; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, photographs, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such personnel and members; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel and members are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
u. The home addresses, telephone numbers, places of employment, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former staff and domestic violence advocates, as defined in s. 90.5036(1)(b), of domestic violence centers certified by the Department of Children and Families under chapter 39; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, places of employment, dates of birth, and photographs of the spouses and children of such personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
v. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former inspectors or investigators of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of current or former inspectors or investigators; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of current or former inspectors or investigators are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This sub-subparagraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2028, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
<Sub-subparagraph w. is repealed by its own terms on October 2, 2029, unless saved from repeal by the Legislature.>
w. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current county attorneys, assistant county attorneys, deputy county attorneys, city attorneys, assistant city attorneys, and deputy city attorneys; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, photographs, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of current county attorneys, assistant county attorneys, deputy county attorneys, city attorneys, assistant city attorneys, and deputy city attorneys; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of current county attorneys, assistant county attorneys, deputy county attorneys, city attorneys, assistant city attorneys, and deputy city attorneys are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption does not apply to a county attorney, assistant county attorney, deputy county attorney, city attorney, assistant city attorney, or deputy city attorney who qualifies as a candidate for election to public office. This sub-subparagraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
<Sub-subparagraph x. is repealed by its own terms on October 2, 2029, unless saved from repeal by the Legislature.>
x. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current or former commissioners of the Florida Gaming Control Commission; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, photographs, and places of employment of the spouses and children of such current or former commissioners; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of such current or former commissioners are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This sub-subparagraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
<Sub-subparagraph y. is repealed by its own terms on October 2, 2029, unless saved from repeal by the Legislature.>
y. The home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and photographs of current clerks of the circuit court, deputy clerks of the circuit court, and clerk of the circuit court personnel; the names, home addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, and places of employment of the spouses and children of current clerks of the circuit court, deputy clerks of the circuit court, and clerk of the circuit court personnel; and the names and locations of schools and day care facilities attended by the children of current clerks of the circuit court, deputy clerks of the circuit court, and clerk of the circuit court personnel are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This sub-subparagraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
3. An agency that is the custodian of the information specified in subparagraph 2. and that is not the employer of the officer, employee, justice, judge, or other person specified in subparagraph 2. must maintain the exempt status of that information only if the officer, employee, justice, judge, other person, or employing agency of the designated employee submits a written and notarized request for maintenance of the exemption to the custodial agency. The request must state under oath the statutory basis for the individual’s exemption request and confirm the individual’s status as a party eligible for exempt status.
4. a. A county property appraiser, as defined in s. 192.001(3), or a county tax collector, as defined in s. 192.001(4), who receives a written and notarized request for maintenance of the exemption pursuant to subparagraph 3. must comply by removing the name of the individual with exempt status and the instrument number or Official Records book and page number identifying the property with the exempt status from all publicly available records maintained by the property appraiser or tax collector. For written requests received on or before July 1, 2021, a county property appraiser or county tax collector must comply with this sub-subparagraph by October 1, 2021. A county property appraiser or county tax collector may not remove the street address, legal description, or other information identifying real property within the agency’s records so long as a name or personal information otherwise exempt from inspection and copying pursuant to this section is not associated with the property or otherwise displayed in the public records of the agency.
b. Any information restricted from public display, inspection, or copying under sub-subparagraph a. must be provided to the individual whose information was removed.
5. An officer, an employee, a justice, a judge, or other person specified in subparagraph 2. may submit a written request for the release of his or her exempt information to the custodial agency. The written request must be notarized and must specify the information to be released and the party authorized to receive the information. Upon receipt of the written request, the custodial agency must release the specified information to the party authorized to receive such information.
6. The exemptions in this paragraph apply to information held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of the exemption.
7. Information made exempt under this paragraph may be disclosed pursuant to s. 28.2221 to a title insurer authorized pursuant to s. 624.401 and its affiliates as defined in s. 624.10; a title insurance agent or title insurance agency as defined in s. 626.841(1) or (2), respectively; or an attorney duly admitted to practice law in this state and in good standing with The Florida Bar.
8. The exempt status of a home address contained in the Official Records is maintained only during the period when a protected party resides at the dwelling location. Upon conveyance of real property after October 1, 2021, and when such real property no longer constitutes a protected party’s home address as defined in sub-subparagraph 1.a., the protected party must submit a written request to release the removed information to the county recorder. The written request to release the removed information must be notarized, must confirm that a protected party’s request for release is pursuant to a conveyance of his or her dwelling location, and must specify the Official Records book and page, instrument number, or clerk’s file number for each document containing the information to be released.
9. Upon the death of a protected party as verified by a certified copy of a death certificate or court order, any party can request the county recorder to release a protected decedent’s removed information unless there is a related request on file with the county recorder for continued removal of the decedent’s information or unless such removal is otherwise prohibited by statute or by court order. The written request to release the removed information upon the death of a protected party must attach the certified copy of a death certificate or court order and must be notarized, must confirm the request for release is due to the death of a protected party, and must specify the Official Records book and page number, instrument number, or clerk’s file number for each document containing the information to be released. A fee may not be charged for the release of any document pursuant to such request.
(e) 1. As used in this paragraph, the term “law enforcement geolocation information” means information collected using a global positioning system or another mapping, locational, or directional information system that allows tracking of the location or movement of a law enforcement officer or a law enforcement vehicle.
2. Law enforcement geolocation information held by a law enforcement agency is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption applies to such information held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of the exemption. This exemption does not apply to uniform traffic citations, crash reports, homicide reports, arrest reports, incident reports, or any other official reports issued by an agency which contain law enforcement geolocation information.
3. A law enforcement agency shall disclose law enforcement geolocation information in the following instances:
a. Upon a request from a state or federal law enforcement agency;
b. When a person files a petition with the circuit court in the jurisdiction where the agency having custody of the requested law enforcement geolocation information is located specifying the reasons for requesting such information and the court, upon a showing of good cause, issues an order authorizing the release of the law enforcement geolocation information. In all cases in which the court releases law enforcement geolocation information under this sub-subparagraph, such information must be viewed or copied under the direct supervision of the custodian of the record or his or her designee; or
c. When law enforcement geolocation information is requested for use in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding. This sub-subparagraph does not prohibit a court in such a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, upon a showing of good cause, from restricting or otherwise controlling the disclosure of such information.
4. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2027, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(5) Other personal information.–
(a) 1. a. The Legislature acknowledges that the social security number was never intended to be used for business purposes but was intended to be used solely for the administration of the federal Social Security System. The Legislature is further aware that over time this unique numeric identifier has been used extensively for identity verification purposes and other legitimate consensual purposes.
b. The Legislature recognizes that the social security number can be used as a tool to perpetuate fraud against an individual and to acquire sensitive personal, financial, medical, and familial information, the release of which could cause great financial or personal harm to an individual.
c. The Legislature intends to monitor the use of social security numbers held by agencies in order to maintain a balanced public policy.
2. a. An agency may not collect an individual’s social security number unless the agency has stated in writing the purpose for its collection and unless it is:
(I) Specifically authorized by law to do so; or
(II) Imperative for the performance of that agency’s duties and responsibilities as prescribed by law.
b. An agency shall identify in writing the specific federal or state law governing the collection, use, or release of social security numbers for each purpose for which the agency collects the social security number, including any authorized exceptions that apply to such collection, use, or release. Each agency shall ensure that the collection, use, or release of social security numbers complies with the specific applicable federal or state law.
c. Social security numbers collected by an agency may not be used by that agency for any purpose other than the purpose provided in the written statement.
3. An agency collecting an individual’s social security number shall provide that individual with a copy of the written statement required in subparagraph 2. The written statement also shall state whether collection of the individual’s social security number is authorized or mandatory under federal or state law.
4. Each agency shall review whether its collection of social security numbers is in compliance with subparagraph 2. If the agency determines that collection of a social security number is not in compliance with subparagraph 2., the agency shall immediately discontinue the collection of social security numbers for that purpose.
5. Social security numbers held by an agency are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption applies to social security numbers held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption. This exemption does not supersede any federal law prohibiting the release of social security numbers or any other applicable public records exemption for social security numbers existing prior to May 13, 2002, or created thereafter.
6. Social security numbers held by an agency may be disclosed if any of the following apply:
a. The disclosure of the social security number is expressly required by federal or state law or a court order.
b. The disclosure of the social security number is necessary for the receiving agency or governmental entity to perform its duties and responsibilities.
c. The individual expressly consents in writing to the disclosure of his or her social security number.
d. The disclosure of the social security number is made to comply with the USA Patriot Act of 2001, Pub. L. No. 107-56, or Presidential Executive Order 13224.
e. The disclosure of the social security number is made to a commercial entity for the permissible uses set forth in the federal Driver’s Privacy Protection Act of 1994, 18 U.S.C. ss. 2721 et seq.; the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. ss. 1681 et seq.; or the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999, 15 U.S.C. ss. 6801 et seq., provided that the authorized commercial entity complies with the requirements of this paragraph.
f. The disclosure of the social security number is for the purpose of the administration of health benefits for an agency employee or his or her dependents.
g. The disclosure of the social security number is for the purpose of the administration of a pension fund administered for the agency employee’s retirement fund, deferred compensation plan, or defined contribution plan.
h. The disclosure of the social security number is for the purpose of the administration of the Uniform Commercial Code by the office of the Secretary of State.
7. a. For purposes of this subsection, the term:
(I) “Commercial activity” means the permissible uses set forth in the federal Driver’s Privacy Protection Act of 1994, 18 U.S.C. ss. 2721 et seq.; the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. ss. 1681 et seq.; or the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999, 15 U.S.C. ss. 6801 et seq., or verification of the accuracy of personal information received by a commercial entity in the normal course of its business, including identification or prevention of fraud or matching, verifying, or retrieving information. It does not include the display or bulk sale of social security numbers to the public or the distribution of such numbers to any customer that is not identifiable by the commercial entity.
(II) “Commercial entity” means any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, proprietorship, sole proprietorship, firm, enterprise, franchise, or association that performs a commercial activity in this state.
b. An agency may not deny a commercial entity engaged in the performance of a commercial activity access to social security numbers, provided the social security numbers will be used only in the performance of a commercial activity and provided the commercial entity makes a written request for the social security numbers. The written request must:
(I) Be verified as provided in s. 92.525;
(II) Be legibly signed by an authorized officer, employee, or agent of the commercial entity;
(III) Contain the commercial entity’s name, business mailing and location addresses, and business telephone number; and
(IV) Contain a statement of the specific purposes for which it needs the social security numbers and how the social security numbers will be used in the performance of a commercial activity, including the identification of any specific federal or state law that permits such use.
c. An agency may request any other information reasonably necessary to verify the identity of a commercial entity requesting the social security numbers and the specific purposes for which the numbers will be used.
8. a. Any person who makes a false representation in order to obtain a social security number pursuant to this paragraph, or any person who willfully and knowingly violates this paragraph, commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
b. Any public officer who violates this paragraph commits a noncriminal infraction, punishable by a fine not exceeding $500 per violation.
9. Any affected person may petition the circuit court for an order directing compliance with this paragraph.
(b) Bank account numbers and debit, charge, and credit card numbers held by an agency are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption applies to bank account numbers and debit, charge, and credit card numbers held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.
(c) 1. For purposes of this paragraph, the term:
a. “Child” means any person younger than 18 years of age.
b. “Government-sponsored recreation program” means a program for which an agency assumes responsibility for a child participating in that program, including, but not limited to, after-school programs, athletic programs, nature programs, summer camps, or other recreational programs.
2. Information that would identify or locate a child who participates in a government-sponsored recreation program is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
3. Information that would identify or locate a parent or guardian of a child who participates in a government-sponsored recreation program is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
4. This exemption applies to records held before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.
(d) All records supplied by a telecommunications company, as defined by s. 364.02, to an agency which contain the name, address, and telephone number of subscribers are confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(e) Any information provided to an agency for the purpose of forming ridesharing arrangements, which information reveals the identity of an individual who has provided his or her name for ridesharing, as defined in s. 341.031, is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
(f) 1. The following information held by the Department of Commerce, the Florida Housing Finance Corporation, a county, a municipality, or a local housing finance agency is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution:
a. Medical history records and information related to health or property insurance provided by an applicant for or a participant in a federal, state, or local housing assistance program.
b. Property photographs and personal identifying information of an applicant for or a participant in a federal, state, or local housing assistance program for the purpose of disaster recovery assistance for a presidentially declared disaster.
2. Governmental entities or their agents shall have access to such confidential and exempt records and information for the purpose of auditing federal, state, or local housing programs or housing assistance programs.
3. Such confidential and exempt records and information may be used in any administrative or judicial proceeding, provided such records are kept confidential and exempt unless otherwise ordered by a court.
4. Sub-subparagraph 1.b. is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2025, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.
(g) Biometric identification information held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. As used in this paragraph, the term “biometric identification information” means:
1. Any record of friction ridge detail;
2. Fingerprints;
3. Palm prints; and
4. Footprints.
(h) 1. Personal identifying information of an applicant for or a recipient of paratransit services which is held by an agency is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.
2. This exemption applies to personal identifying information of an applicant for or a recipient of paratransit services which is held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.
3. Confidential and exempt personal identifying information shall be disclosed:
a. With the express written consent of the applicant or recipient or the legally authorized representative of such applicant or recipient;
b. In a medical emergency, but only to the extent that is necessary to protect the health or life of the applicant or recipient;
c. By court order upon a showing of good cause; or
d. To another agency in the performance of its duties and responsibilities.
(i) 1. For purposes of this paragraph, “identification and location information” means the:
a. Home address, telephone number, and photograph of a current or former United States attorney, assistant United States attorney, judge of the United States Courts of Appeal, United States district judge, or United States magistrate;
b. Home address, telephone number, photograph, and place of employment of the spouse or child of such attorney, judge, or magistrate; and
c. Name and location of the school or day care facility attended by the child of such attorney, judge, or magistrate.
2. Identification and location information held by an agency is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution if such attorney, judge, or magistrate submits to an agency that has custody of the identification and location information:
a. A written request to exempt such information from public disclosure; and
b. A written statement that he or she has made reasonable efforts to protect the identification and location information from being accessible through other means available to the public.
(j) Any information furnished by a person to an agency for the purpose of being provided with emergency notification by the agency is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption applies to information held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.
<Subsection (5)(k) is repealed by its own terms on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.>
(k) 1. For purposes of this paragraph, the term:
a. “Identification and location information” means the:
(I) Home addresses, telephone numbers, and dates of birth of current and former military personnel, and the telephone numbers associated with the personal communication devices of current and former military personnel.
(II) Home addresses, telephone numbers, and dates of birth of the spouses and dependents of current and former military personnel, and the telephone numbers associated with the personal communication devices of such spouses and dependents.
(III) Names and locations of schools attended by the spouses of current and former military personnel and schools or day care facilities attended by dependents of current and former military personnel.
b. “Military personnel” means persons employed by the United States Department of Defense who are authorized to access information that is deemed “secret” or “top secret” by the Federal Government or who are servicemembers of a special operations force.
c. “Special operations force” has the same meaning as provided in s. 943.10(22).
2. Identification and location information held by an agency is exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution if the current or former military personnel member submits to an agency that has custody of the identification and location information:
a. A written request to exempt the identification and location information from public disclosure; and
b. A written statement that he or she has made reasonable efforts to protect the identification and location information from being accessible through other means available to the public.
3. This exemption applies to identification and location information held by an agency before, on, or after the effective date of this exemption.
4. This paragraph is subject to the Open Government Sunset Review Act in accordance with s. 119.15 and shall stand repealed on October 2, 2029, unless reviewed and saved from repeal through reenactment by the Legislature.

If a person is found guilty of, has adjudication withheld on, or pleads nolo contendere to a crime of domestic violence, as defined in s. 741.28, that person shall be ordered by the court to a minimum term of 1 year’s probation and the court shall order that the defendant attend and complete a batterers’ intervention program as a condition of probation. The court must impose the condition of the batterers’ intervention program for a defendant under this section, but the court, in its discretion, may determine not to impose the condition if it states on the record why a batterers’ intervention program might be inappropriate. The court must impose the condition of the batterers’ intervention program for a defendant placed on probation unless the court determines that the person does not qualify for the batterers’ intervention program pursuant to s. 741.325. The imposition of probation under this section does not preclude the court from imposing any sentence of imprisonment authorized by s. 775.082.

(1) Any law enforcement officer who investigates an alleged incident of domestic violence shall:

(a) Assist the victim to obtain medical treatment if such is required as a result of the alleged incident to which the officer responds;

(b) Advise the victim of such violence that there is a domestic violence center from which the victim may receive services;

(c) Administer a lethality assessment consistent with the requirements established in subsection (2) if the allegation of domestic violence is against an intimate partner, regardless of whether an arrest is made; and

(d) Give the victim immediate notice of the legal rights and remedies available on a standard form developed and distributed by the department. As necessary, the department shall revise the Legal Rights and Remedies Notice to Victims to include a general summary of s. 741.30 using simple English as well as Spanish, and shall distribute the notice as a model form to be used by all law enforcement agencies throughout this state. The notice must include:

1. The resource listing, including telephone number, for the area domestic violence center designated by the Department of Children and Families; and

2. A copy of the following statement:

IF YOU ARE THE VICTIM OF DOMESTIC VIOLENCE, you may ask the state attorney to file a criminal complaint. You also have the right to go to court and file a petition requesting an injunction for protection from domestic violence which may include, but need not be limited to, provisions which restrain the abuser from further acts of abuse; direct the abuser to leave your household; prevent the abuser from entering your residence, school, business, or place of employment; award you custody of your minor child or children; and direct the abuser to pay support to you and the minor children if the abuser has a legal obligation to do so.

(2) The department shall consult with the Department of Children and Families, the Florida Sheriffs Association, the Florida Police Chiefs Association, the Florida Partnership to End Domestic Violence, and at least two domestic violence advocacy organizations to develop the policies, procedures, and training necessary for implementation of a statewide evidence-based lethality assessment. Such policies, procedures, and training must establish how to determine whether a victim and aggressor are intimate partners and establish a statewide process for referring a victim to a certified domestic violence center. The group must review the questions in paragraph (e) and make a recommendation as to whether all questions should be included in the statewide lethality assessment instrument and form. By January 1, 2025, the department must adopt a statewide lethality assessment instrument and form. If a question in paragraph (e) is eliminated from the assessment, the department must confirm that the remaining or altered questions constitute an evidence-based lethality assessment. By January 31, 2025, the department shall report to the President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives the results and recommendations of the group, including any proposed statutory changes that are necessary for implementation of a statewide lethality assessment. Training on how to administer a lethality assessment and the approved lethality assessment form must be accessible to a law enforcement officer in an online format.

(a) The department must monitor evidence-based standards relating to the lethality assessment and the lethality assessment instrument and form. If the department identifies changes in such evidence-based standards, the department must submit a report to the President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives which must include any proposed changes to the statewide lethality assessment in order to maintain compliance with evidence-based standards. In the report, the department must include the availability of any additional evidence-based assessments that have been reviewed and approved by the Office on Violence Against Women of the United States Department of Justice Office.

(b) The Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission shall require by rule that all law enforcement officers receive instruction on the policies and procedures for administering a lethality assessment as part of basic recruit training or as part of the required instruction for continued employment. A law enforcement officer may not administer a lethality assessment to a victim if the officer has not received training on administering a lethality assessment. All of the following requirements for training on administering a lethality assessment must be met by October 1, 2026:

1. Commission-approved basic recruit training programs required by s. 943.13(9) and continuing training or education required by s. 943.135 must incorporate the training required by this subsection.

2. Each law enforcement agency shall ensure that all of its sworn personnel have completed the training required by this subsection, including law enforcement officers who received an exemption from completing the commission-approved basic recruit training program under s. 943.131, as part of their basic recruit training or the continued training or education required under s. 943.135(1), as applicable.

(c) By November 1, 2026, the head of each law enforcement agency shall provide written certification to the department verifying that the law enforcement agency has complied with the training requirements in this subsection.

(d) By January 1, 2027, the department shall submit to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives a report identifying each law enforcement agency that has not complied with the requirements of this subsection.

(e) Subject to any revisions made by the department to the lethality assessment under this subsection, to administer a lethality assessment, a law enforcement officer shall ask the victim, in the same or similar wording and in the same order, all of the following questions:

1. Did the aggressor ever use a weapon against you or threaten you with a weapon?

2. Did the aggressor ever threaten to kill you or your children?

3. Do you believe the aggressor will try to kill you?

4. Has the aggressor ever choked you or attempted to choke you?

5. Does the aggressor have a gun or could the aggressor easily obtain a gun?

6. Is the aggressor violently or constantly jealous, or does the aggressor control most of your daily activities?

7. Did you leave or separate from the aggressor after you were living together or married?

8. Is the aggressor unemployed?

9. To the best of your knowledge, has the aggressor ever attempted suicide?

10. Do you have a child whom the aggressor believes is not the aggressor’s biological child?

11. Has the aggressor ever followed, spied on, or left threatening messages for you?

12. Is there anything else that worries you about your safety and, if so, what worries you?

(f) A law enforcement officer shall advise a victim of the results of the assessment and refer the victim to the nearest locally certified domestic violence center if:

1. The victim answers affirmatively to any of the questions provided in subparagraphs (e)1.-4.;

2. The victim answers negatively to the questions provided in subparagraphs (e)1.-4., but affirmatively to at least four of the questions provided in subparagraphs (e)5.-11.; or

3. As a result of the victim’s response to subparagraph (e)12., the law enforcement officer believes the victim is in a potentially lethal situation.

(g) If a victim does not, or is unable to, provide information to a law enforcement officer sufficient to allow the law enforcement officer to administer a lethality assessment, the law enforcement officer must document the lack of a lethality assessment in the written police report required in subsection (3) and refer the victim to the nearest locally certified domestic violence center.

(h) A law enforcement officer may not include in a probable cause statement, written police report, or incident report the domestic violence center to which a victim was referred.

(3) When a law enforcement officer investigates an allegation that an incident of domestic violence has occurred, the officer shall handle the incident pursuant to the arrest policy provided in s. 901.15(7), and as developed in accordance with subsections (4), (5), and (6). Regardless of whether an arrest is made, the officer shall make a written police report that is complete and clearly indicates the alleged offense was an incident of domestic violence. Such report must be given to the officer’s supervisor and filed with the law enforcement agency in a manner that will permit data on domestic violence cases to be compiled. Such report must include all of the following:

(a) A description of physical injuries observed, if any.

(b) If a law enforcement officer decides not to make an arrest or decides to arrest two or more parties, the grounds for not arresting anyone or for arresting two or more parties.

(c) A statement which indicates that a copy of the legal rights and remedies notice was given to the victim.

(d) A notation of the score of a lethality assessment, if one was administered pursuant to paragraph (1)(c).

Whenever possible, the law enforcement officer shall obtain a written statement from the victim and witnesses concerning the alleged domestic violence. The officer shall submit the report to the supervisor or other person to whom the employer’s rules or policies require reports of similar allegations of criminal activity to be made. The law enforcement agency shall, without charge, send a copy of the initial police report, as well as any subsequent, supplemental, or related report, which excludes victim/witness statements or other materials that are part of an active criminal investigation and are exempt from disclosure under chapter 119, to the nearest locally certified domestic violence center within 24 hours after the agency’s receipt of the report. The report furnished to the domestic violence center must include a narrative description of the domestic violence incident.

(4) Whenever a law enforcement officer determines upon probable cause that an act of domestic violence has been committed within the jurisdiction the officer may arrest the person or persons suspected of its commission and charge such person or persons with the appropriate crime. The decision to arrest and charge shall not require consent of the victim or consideration of the relationship of the parties.

(5)(a) When complaints are received from two or more parties, the officers shall evaluate each complaint separately to determine whether there is probable cause for arrest.

(b) If a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that two or more persons have committed a misdemeanor or felony, or if two or more persons make complaints to the officer, the officer must try to determine who was the primary aggressor. Arrest is the preferred response only with respect to the primary aggressor and not the preferred response with respect to a person who acts in a reasonable manner to protect or defend oneself or another family or household member from domestic violence.

(6) A law enforcement officer may not be held liable, in any civil action, for an arrest based on probable cause, enforcement in good faith of a court order, or service of process in good faith under this chapter arising from an alleged incident of domestic violence brought by any party to the incident.

(7) A person who willfully violates a condition of pretrial release provided in s. 903.047, when the original arrest was for an act of domestic violence as defined in s. 741.28, commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083, and shall be held in custody until his or her first appearance.

(1) It is the intent of the Legislature, with respect to domestic violence cases, that at the first appearance the court shall consider the safety of the victim, the victim’s children, and any other person who may be in danger if the defendant is released, and exercise caution in releasing defendants.

(2) It is the intent of the Legislature, with respect to injunctions for protection against domestic violence, issued pursuant to s. 741.30, that the court shall:

(a) Recognize that the petitioner’s safety may require immediate removal of the respondent from their joint residence and that there can be inherent danger in permitting the respondent partial or periodic access to the residence.

(b) Ensure that the parties have a clear understanding of the terms of the injunction, the penalties for failure to comply, and that the parties cannot amend the injunction verbally, in writing, or by invitation to the residence.

(c) Ensure that the parties have knowledge of legal rights and remedies including, but not limited to, visitation, child support, retrieving property, counseling, and enforcement or modification of the injunction.

(d) Consider temporary child support when the pleadings raise the issue and in the absence of other support orders.

(e) Consider supervised visitation, withholding visitation, or other arrangements for visitation that will best protect the child and petitioner from harm.

(f) Enforce, through a civil or criminal contempt proceeding, a violation of an injunction for protection against domestic violence.

(g) Consider requiring the perpetrator to complete a batterers’ intervention program. It is preferred that such program meet the requirements specified in s. 741.325.

(1) In the event of a violation of the injunction for protection against domestic violence when there has not been an arrest, the petitioner may contact the clerk of the circuit court of the county in which the violation is alleged to have occurred. The clerk shall either assist the petitioner in the preparation of an affidavit in support of the violation or direct the petitioner to the office operated by the court within the circuit that has been designated by the chief judge of that circuit as the central intake point for injunction violations and where the petitioner can receive assistance in the preparation of the affidavit in support of the violation.

(2) The affidavit shall be immediately forwarded by the office assisting the petitioner to the state attorney of that circuit and to such court or judge as the chief judge of that circuit determines to be the recipient of affidavits of violation. If the affidavit alleges a crime has been committed, the office assisting the petitioner shall also forward a copy of the petitioner’s affidavit to the appropriate law enforcement agency for investigation. No later than 20 days after receiving the initial report, the local law enforcement agency shall complete their investigation and forward the report to the state attorney. The policy adopted by the state attorney in each circuit under s. 741.2901(2), shall include a policy regarding intake of alleged violations of injunctions for protection against domestic violence under this section. The intake shall be supervised by a prosecutor who, pursuant to s. 741.2901(1), has been designated and assigned to handle domestic violence cases. The state attorney shall determine within 30 working days whether its office will proceed to file criminal charges, or prepare a motion for an order to show cause as to why the respondent should not be held in criminal contempt, or prepare both as alternative findings, or file notice that the case remains under investigation or is pending subject to some other action.

(3) If the court has knowledge, based on its familiarity with the case, that the petitioner, the children of the petitioner, or another person is in immediate danger if the court fails to act prior to the decision of the state attorney to prosecute, it should immediately issue an order of appointment of the state attorney to file a motion for an order to show cause as to why the respondent should not be held in contempt. If the court does not issue an order of appointment of the state attorney, it shall immediately notify the state attorney that the court is proceeding to enforce the violation through criminal contempt.

(4)(a) A person who willfully violates an injunction for protection against domestic violence issued pursuant to s. 741.30, or a foreign protection order accorded full faith and credit pursuant to s. 741.315, by:

1. Refusing to vacate the dwelling that the parties share;

2. Going to, or being within 500 feet of, the petitioner’s residence, school, place of employment, or a specified place frequented regularly by the petitioner and any named family or household member;

3. Committing an act of domestic violence against the petitioner;

4. Committing any other violation of the injunction through an intentional unlawful threat, word, or act to do violence to the petitioner;

5. Telephoning, contacting, or otherwise communicating with the petitioner directly or indirectly, unless the injunction specifically allows indirect contact through a third party;

6. Knowingly and intentionally coming within 100 feet of the petitioner’s motor vehicle, whether or not that vehicle is occupied;

7. Defacing or destroying the petitioner’s personal property, including the petitioner’s motor vehicle; or

8. Refusing to surrender firearms or ammunition if ordered to do so by the court

commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083, except as provided in paragraph (c).

(b) 1. It is a violation of s. 790.233, and a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083, for a person to violate a final injunction for protection against domestic violence by having in his or her care, custody, possession, or control any firearm or ammunition.

2. It is the intent of the Legislature that the disabilities regarding possession of firearms and ammunition are consistent with federal law. Accordingly, this paragraph shall not apply to a state or local officer as defined in s. 943.10(14), holding an active certification, who receives or possesses a firearm or ammunition for use in performing official duties on behalf of the officer’s employing agency, unless otherwise prohibited by the employing agency.

(c) A person who has two or more prior convictions for violation of an injunction or foreign protection order, and who subsequently commits a violation of any injunction or foreign protection order against the same victim, commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083 or s. 775.084. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “conviction” means a determination of guilt which is the result of a plea or a trial, regardless of whether adjudication is withheld or a plea of nolo contendere is entered.

(5) Whether or not there is a criminal prosecution under subsection (4), the court shall order the respondent to attend a batterers’ intervention program if it finds a willful violation of a domestic violence injunction, unless the court makes written factual findings in its judgment or order which are based on substantial evidence, stating why a batterers’ intervention program would be inappropriate.

(6) Any person who suffers an injury and/or loss as a result of a violation of an injunction for protection against domestic violence may be awarded economic damages for that injury and/or loss by the court issuing the injunction. Damages includes costs and attorneys’ fees for enforcement of the injunction.

(1) As used in this section, the term “court of a foreign state” means a court of competent jurisdiction of a state of the United States, other than Florida; the District of Columbia; an Indian tribe; or a commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States.

(2) Pursuant to 18 U.S.C. s. 2265, an injunction for protection against domestic violence issued by a court of a foreign state must be accorded full faith and credit by the courts of this state and enforced by a law enforcement agency as if it were the order of a Florida court issued under s. 741.30, s. 741.31, s. 784.046, s. 784.047, s. 784.0485, or s. 784.0487, and provided that the court had jurisdiction over the parties and the matter and that reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard was given to the person against whom the order is sought sufficient to protect that person’s right to due process. Ex parte foreign injunctions for protection are not eligible for enforcement under this section unless notice and opportunity to be heard have been provided within the time required by the foreign state or tribal law, and in any event within a reasonable time after the order is issued, sufficient to protect the respondent’s due process rights.

(3) Notwithstanding s. 55.505 or any other provision to the contrary, neither residence in this state nor registration of foreign injunctions for protection shall be required for enforcement of this order by this state and failure to register the foreign order shall not be an impediment to its enforcement. The following registration procedure shall be available to protected persons who hold orders from a court of a foreign state.

(a) A protected person shall present a certified copy of a foreign order of protection to any sheriff in this state and request that the same be registered in the injunction registry. However, nothing in this section shall operate to preclude the enforcement of any order of protection determined by the law enforcement officer to be valid even if the protected person does not have a certified copy of the foreign protection order. It is not necessary that the protected person register the foreign order in the protected person’s county of residence. Venue is proper throughout the state. The protected person must swear by affidavit, that to the best of the protected person’s knowledge and belief, the attached certified copy of the foreign order, docket number __________, issued in the state of __________ on __________ is currently in effect as written and has not been superseded by any other order and that the respondent has been given a copy of it.

(b) The sheriff shall examine the certified copy of the foreign order and register the order in the injunction registry, noting that it is a foreign order of protection. If not apparent from the face of the certified copy of the foreign order, the sheriff shall use best efforts to ascertain whether the order was served on the respondent. The Florida Department of Law Enforcement shall develop a special notation for foreign orders of protection. The sheriff shall assign a case number and give the protected person a receipt showing registration of the foreign order in this state. There shall be no fee for registration of a foreign order.

(c) The foreign order may also be registered by local law enforcement agencies upon receipt of the foreign order and any accompanying affidavits in the same manner described in paragraphs (a) and (b).

(4)(a) Law enforcement officers shall enforce foreign orders of protection as if they were entered by a court of this state. Upon presentation of a foreign protection order by a protected person, a law enforcement officer shall assist in enforcement of all of its terms, pursuant to federal law, except matters related to child custody, visitation, and support. As to those provisions only, enforcement may be obtained upon domestication of the foreign order pursuant to ss. 55.501-55.509 unless the foreign order is a “pickup order” or “order of bodily attachment” requiring the immediate return of a child.

(b) Before enforcing a foreign protection order, a law enforcement officer should confirm the identity of the parties present and review the order to determine that, on its face, it has not expired. Presentation of a certified or true copy of the protection order shall not be required as a condition of enforcement, provided that a conflicting certified copy is not presented by the respondent or the individual against whom enforcement is sought.

(c) A law enforcement officer shall use reasonable efforts to verify service of process.

(d) Service may be verified as follows:

1. By petitioner: Petitioner may state under oath that to the best of petitioner’s knowledge, respondent was served with the order of protection because petitioner was present at time of service; respondent told petitioner he or she was served; another named person told petitioner respondent was served; or respondent told petitioner he or she knows of the content of the order and date of the return hearing.

2. By respondent: Respondent states under oath that he or she was or was not served with the order.

(e) Enforcement and arrest for violation of a foreign protection order shall be consistent with the enforcement of orders issued in this state.

(f) A law enforcement officer acting in good faith under this section and the officer’s employing agency shall be immune from all liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred or imposed by reason of the officer’s or agency’s actions in carrying out the provisions of this section.

(g) Law enforcement shall not require petitioner to sign a registration affidavit as a condition of enforcement.

(h) A foreign order of protection shall remain in effect until the date of expiration on its face; or, if there is no expiration date on its face, a foreign order of protection shall remain in effect until expiration. If the order of protection states on its face that it is a permanent order, then there is no date of expiration.

(5) Any person who acts under this section and intentionally provides a law enforcement officer with a copy of an order of protection known by that person to be false or invalid, or who denies having been served with an order of protection when that person has been served with such order, commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

(6) In the event 18 U.S.C. s. 2265 is held to be unconstitutional, this section shall be null and void.

(1)(a) Any information that is confidential or exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution and that is obtained by a domestic violence fatality review team conducting activities as described in s. 741.316 shall retain its confidential or exempt status when held by a domestic violence fatality review team.

(b) Any information contained in a record created by a domestic violence fatality review team pursuant to s. 741.316 that reveals the identity of a victim of domestic violence or the identity of the children of the victim is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution.

(2) Portions of meetings of any domestic violence fatality review team regarding domestic violence fatalities and their prevention, during which confidential or exempt information, the identity of the victim, or the identity of the children of the victim is discussed, are exempt from s. 286.011 and s. 24(b), Art. I of the State Constitution.

(1) A batterers’ intervention program must meet the following requirements:

(a) The primary purpose of the program shall be victim safety and the safety of children, if present.

(b) The batterer shall be held accountable for acts of domestic violence.

(c) The program shall be at least 29 weeks in length and include 24 weekly sessions, plus appropriate intake, assessment, and orientation programming.

(d) The program content shall be based on a cognitive behavioral therapy model or psychoeducational model that addresses tactics of power and control by one person over another.

(e) The program shall be funded by user fees paid by the batterers who attend the program, which allows them to take responsibility for their acts of violence. An exception shall be made for local, state, or federal programs that fund batterers’ intervention programs in whole or in part.(2) The requirements of this section apply only to programs that address the perpetration of violence between intimate partners, spouses, ex-spouses, or those who share a child in common or who are cohabitants in intimate relationships for the purpose of exercising power and control by one over the other. It will endanger victims if courts and other referral agencies refer family and household members who are not perpetrators of the type of domestic violence encompassed by these requirements. Accordingly, the court and others who make referrals should refer perpetrators only to programming that appropriately addresses the violence committed.

The Legislature finds that persons attempting to escape from actual or threatened domestic violence frequently establish new addresses in order to prevent their assailants or probable assailants from finding them. The purpose of ss. 741.401-741.409 is to enable state and local agencies to respond to requests for public records without disclosing the location of a victim of domestic violence, to enable interagency cooperation with the Attorney General in providing address confidentiality for victims of domestic violence, and to enable state and local agencies to accept a program participant’s use of an address designated by the Attorney General as a substitute mailing address.

(1) An adult person, a parent or guardian acting on behalf of a minor, or a guardian acting on behalf of a person adjudicated incapacitated under chapter 744 may apply to the Attorney General to have an address designated by the Attorney General serve as the person’s address or the address of the minor or incapacitated person. To the extent possible within funds appropriated for this purpose, the Attorney General shall approve an application if it is filed in the manner and on the form prescribed by the Attorney General and if it contains all of the following:

(a) A sworn statement by the applicant that the applicant has good reason to believe that the applicant, or the minor or incapacitated person on whose behalf the application is made, is a victim of domestic violence, and that the applicant fears for his or her safety or his or her children’s safety or the safety of the minor or incapacitated person on whose behalf the application is made.

(b) A designation of the Attorney General as agent for purposes of service of process and for the purpose of receipt of mail.

(c) The mailing address where the applicant can be contacted by the Attorney General, and the phone number or numbers where the applicant can be called by the Attorney General.

(d) A statement that the new address or addresses that the applicant requests must not be disclosed for the reason that disclosure will increase the risk of domestic violence.

(e) The signature of the applicant and of any individual or representative of any office designated in writing under s. 741.408 who assisted in the preparation of the application, and the date on which the applicant signed the application.

(2) Applications must be filed with the Office of the Attorney General. An application fee may not be charged.

(3) Upon filing a properly completed application, the Attorney General shall certify the applicant as a program participant. Applicants shall be certified for 4 years following the date of filing unless the certification is withdrawn or invalidated before that date. The Attorney General shall by rule establish a renewal procedure.

(4) A person who falsely attests in an application that disclosure of the applicant’s address would endanger the applicant’s safety or the safety of the applicant’s children or the minor or incapacitated person on whose behalf the application is made, or who knowingly provides false or incorrect information upon making an application, commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

(5) Any person who attempts to gain access to a program participant’s actual address through fraud commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

(6) Any person who knowingly enters the address confidentiality program to evade prosecution of criminal laws or civil liability commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

(1) A program participant may request that state and local agencies or other governmental entities use the address designated by the Attorney General as his or her address. When creating a new public record, state and local agencies or other governmental entities shall accept the address designated by the Attorney General as a program participant’s substitute address, unless the Attorney General has determined that:

(a) The agency or entity has a bona fide statutory or administrative requirement for the use of the address that would otherwise be confidential under ss. 741.401-741.409;

(b) This address will be used only for those statutory and administrative purposes;

(c) The agency or entity has identified the specific program participant’s record for which the waiver is requested;

(d) The agency or entity has identified the individuals who will have access to the record; and

(e) The agency or entity has explained how its acceptance of a substitute address will prevent the agency from meeting its obligations under the law and why it cannot meet its statutory or administrative obligation by a change in its internal procedures.

(2) During the review, evaluation, and appeal of an agency’s request, the agency shall accept the use of a program participant’s substitute address.

(3) The Attorney General’s determination to grant or withhold a requested waiver must be based on, but not limited to, an evaluation of information provided under subsection (1).

(4) If the Attorney General determines that an agency or entity has a bona fide statutory or administrative need for the actual address and that the information will be used only for that purpose, the Attorney General may issue the actual address to the agency or entity. When granting a waiver, the Attorney General shall notify and require the agency or entity to:

(a) Maintain the confidentiality of a program participant’s address information;

(b) Limit the use of and access to that address;

(c) Designate an address disposition date after which the agency or entity may no longer maintain the record of the address; and

(d) Comply with any other provisions and qualifications determined appropriate by the Attorney General.

(5) The Attorney General’s denial of an agency’s or entity’s waiver request must be made in writing and include a statement of specific reasons for denial. Acceptance or denial of an agency’s or entity’s waiver request shall constitute final agency action.

(6) Pursuant to chapter 120, an agency or entity may appeal the denial of its request.

(7) A program participant may use the address designated by the Attorney General as his or her work address.

(8) The Office of the Attorney General shall forward all first class mail to the appropriate program participants at no charge.

The Attorney General shall designate state and local agencies and nonprofit agencies that provide counseling and shelter services to victims of domestic violence to assist persons applying to be program participants. Assistance and counseling rendered by the Office of the Attorney General or its designees to applicants does not constitute legal advice.

(1) The addresses, corresponding telephone numbers, and social security numbers of program participants in the Address Confidentiality Program for Victims of Domestic Violence held by the Office of the Attorney General are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, except the information may be disclosed under the following circumstances: to a law enforcement agency for purposes of assisting in the execution of a valid arrest warrant; if directed by a court order, to a person identified in the order; or if the certification has been canceled. For purposes of this section, the term “address” means a residential street address, school address, or work address, as specified on the individual’s application to be a program participant in the Address Confidentiality Program for Victims of Domestic Violence.

(2) The names, addresses, and telephone numbers of participants in the Address Confidentiality Program for Victims of Domestic Violence contained in voter registration and voting records held by the supervisor of elections and the Department of State are exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution, except the information may be disclosed under the following circumstances: to a law enforcement agency for purposes of assisting in the execution of an arrest warrant or, if directed by a court order, to a person identified in the order. This exemption applies to information made exempt by this subsection before, on, or after the effective date of the exemption.

(1) In any proceeding to establish paternity, the court on its own motion may require the child, mother, and alleged fathers to submit to scientific tests that are generally acceptable within the scientific community to show a probability of paternity. The court shall direct that the tests be conducted by a qualified technical laboratory.

(2) In any proceeding to establish paternity, the court may, upon request of a party providing a sworn statement or written declaration as provided by s. 92.525(2) alleging paternity and setting forth facts establishing a reasonable possibility of the requisite sexual contact between the parties or providing a sworn statement or written declaration denying paternity and setting forth facts establishing a reasonable possibility of the nonexistence of sexual contact between the parties, require the child, mother, and alleged fathers to submit to scientific tests that are generally acceptable within the scientific community to show a probability of paternity. The court shall direct that the tests be conducted by a qualified technical laboratory.

(3) The test results, together with the opinions and conclusions of the test laboratory, shall be filed with the court. Any objection to the test results must be made in writing and must be filed with the court at least 10 days prior to the hearing. If no objection is filed, the test results shall be admitted into evidence without the need for predicate to be laid or third-party foundation testimony to be presented. Nothing in this paragraph prohibits a party from calling an outside expert witness to refute or support the testing procedure or results, or the mathematical theory on which they are based. Upon the entry of the order for scientific testing, the court must inform each person to be tested of the procedure and requirements for objecting to the test results and of the consequences of the failure to object.

(4) Test results are admissible in evidence and should be weighed along with other evidence of the paternity of the alleged father unless the statistical probability of paternity equals or exceeds 95 percent. A statistical probability of paternity of 95 percent or more creates a rebuttable presumption, as defined by s. 90.304, that the alleged father is the biological father of the child. If a party fails to rebut the presumption of paternity which arose from the statistical probability of paternity of 95 percent or more, the court may enter a summary judgment of paternity. If the test results show the alleged father cannot be the biological father, the case shall be dismissed with prejudice.

(5) Subject to the limitations in subsection (3), if the test results or the expert analysis of the inherited characteristics is disputed, the court, upon reasonable request of a party, shall order that an additional test be made by the same laboratory or an independent laboratory at the expense of the party requesting additional testing.

(6) Verified documentation of the chain of custody of the blood or other specimens is competent evidence to establish the chain of custody.

(7) The fees and costs for scientific tests shall be paid by the parties in proportions and at times determined by the court unless the parties reach a stipulated agreement which is adopted by the court.

As used in this chapter, the term:

(1) “Concurrent custody” means that an eligible extended family member is awarded custodial rights to care for a child concurrently with the child’s parent or parents.

(2) “Extended family member” means a person who is:

(a) A relative of a minor child within the third degree by blood or marriage to the parent;

(b) The stepparent of a minor child if the stepparent is currently married to the parent of the child and is not a party in a pending dissolution, separate maintenance, domestic violence, or other civil or criminal proceeding in any court of competent jurisdiction involving one or both of the child’s parents as an adverse party; or

(c) An individual who qualifies as “fictive kin” as defined in s. 39.01.

As used in this chapter, the term:

(1) “Concurrent custody” means that an eligible extended family member is awarded custodial rights to care for a child concurrently with the child’s parent or parents.

(2) “Extended family member” means a person who is:

(a) A relative of a minor child within the third degree by blood or marriage to the parent;

(b) The stepparent of a minor child if the stepparent is currently married to the parent of the child and is not a party in a pending dissolution, separate maintenance, domestic violence, or other civil or criminal proceeding in any court of competent jurisdiction involving one or both of the child’s parents as an adverse party; or

(c) An individual who qualifies as “fictive kin” as defined in s. 39.01.

A grandparent of a minor child whose parents are deceased, missing, or in a persistent vegetative state, or whose one parent is deceased, missing, or in a persistent vegetative state and whose other parent has been convicted of a felony or an offense of violence evincing behavior that poses a substantial threat of harm to the minor child’s health or welfare, may petition the court for court-ordered visitation with the grandchild under this section.

(1) Upon the filing of a petition by a grandparent for visitation, the court shall hold a preliminary hearing to determine whether the petitioner has made a prima facie showing of parental unfitness or significant harm to the child. Absent such a showing, the court shall dismiss the petition and may award reasonable attorney fees and costs to be paid by the petitioner to the respondent.

(2) Notwithstanding subsection (1), if the court finds that one parent of a child has been held criminally liable for the death of the other parent of the child or civilly liable for an intentional tort causing the death of the other parent of the child, there is a presumption for granting reasonable visitation with the petitioning grandparent or stepgrandparent if he or she is the parent of the child’s deceased parent. This presumption may only be overcome if the court finds that granting such visitation is not in the best interests of the child.

(3) If the court finds that there is prima facie evidence that a parent is unfit or that there is significant harm to the child, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem and shall refer the matter to family mediation as provided in s. 752.015. If family mediation does not successfully resolve the issue of grandparent visitation, the court shall proceed with a final hearing.

(4) After conducting a final hearing on the issue of visitation, the court may award reasonable visitation to the grandparent with respect to the minor child if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that a parent is unfit or that there is significant harm to the child, that visitation is in the best interest of the minor child, and that the visitation will not materially harm the parent-child relationship.

(5) In assessing the best interests of the child under subsection (4), the court shall consider the totality of the circumstances affecting the mental and emotional well-being of the minor child, including:

(a) The love, affection, and other emotional ties existing between the minor child and the grandparent, including those resulting from the relationship that had been previously allowed by the child’s parent.

(b) The length and quality of the previous relationship between the minor child and the grandparent, including the extent to which the grandparent was involved in providing regular care and support for the child.

(c) Whether the grandparent established ongoing personal contact with the minor child before the death of the parent, before the onset of the parent’s persistent vegetative state, or before the parent was missing.

(d) The reasons cited by the respondent parent in ending contact or visitation between the minor child and the grandparent.

(e) Whether there has been significant and demonstrable mental or emotional harm to the minor child as a result of the disruption in the family unit, whether the child derived support and stability from the grandparent, and whether the continuation of such support and stability is likely to prevent further harm.

(f) The existence or threat to the minor child of mental injury as defined in s. 39.01.

(g) The present mental, physical, and emotional health of the minor child.

(h) The present mental, physical, and emotional health of the grandparent.

(i) The recommendations of the minor child’s guardian ad litem, if one is appointed.

(j) The result of any psychological evaluation of the minor child.

(k) The preference of the minor child if the child is determined to be of sufficient maturity to express a preference.

(l) A written testamentary statement by the deceased parent regarding visitation with the grandparent. The absence of a testamentary statement is not deemed to provide evidence that the deceased or missing parent or parent in a persistent vegetative state would have objected to the requested visitation.

(m) Other factors that the court considers necessary to making its determination.

(6) In assessing material harm to the parent-child relationship under subsection (4), the court shall consider the totality of the circumstances affecting the parent-child relationship, including:

(a) Whether there have been previous disputes between the grandparent and the parent over childrearing or other matters related to the care and upbringing of the minor child.

(b) Whether visitation would materially interfere with or compromise parental authority.

(c) Whether visitation can be arranged in a manner that does not materially detract from the parent-child relationship, including the quantity of time available for enjoyment of the parent-child relationship and any other consideration related to disruption of the schedule and routine of the parent and the minor child.

(d) Whether visitation is being sought for the primary purpose of continuing or establishing a relationship with the minor child with the intent that the child benefit from the relationship.

(e) Whether the requested visitation would expose the minor child to conduct, moral standards, experiences, or other factors that are inconsistent with influences provided by the parent.

(f) The nature of the relationship between the child’s parent and the grandparent.

(g) The reasons cited by the parent in ending contact or visitation between the minor child and the grandparent which was previously allowed by the parent.

(h) The psychological toll of visitation disputes on the minor child.

(i) Other factors that the court considers necessary in making its determination.

(7) Part II of chapter 61 applies to actions brought under this section.

(8) If actions under this section and s. 61.13 are pending concurrently, the courts are strongly encouraged to consolidate the actions in order to minimize the burden of litigation on the minor child and the other parties.

(9) An order for grandparent visitation may be modified upon a showing by the person petitioning for modification that a substantial change in circumstances has occurred and that modification of visitation is in the best interest of the minor child.

(10) An original action requesting visitation under this section may be filed by a grandparent only once during any 2-year period, except on good cause shown that the minor child is suffering, or may suffer, significant and demonstrable mental or emotional harm caused by a parental decision to deny visitation between a minor child and the grandparent, which was not known to the grandparent at the time of filing an earlier action.

(11) This section does not provide for grandparent visitation with a minor child placed for adoption under chapter 63 except as provided in s. 752.071 with respect to adoption by a stepparent or close relative.

(12) Venue shall be in the county where the minor child primarily resides, unless venue is otherwise governed by chapter 39, chapter 61, or chapter 63.

(1)(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person who has been convicted of a capital felony shall be punished by death if the proceeding held to determine sentence according to the procedure set forth in s. 921.141 results in a determination that such person shall be punished by death, otherwise such person shall be punished by life imprisonment and shall be ineligible for parole.

(b) 1. A person who actually killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim and who is convicted under s. 782.04 of a capital felony, or an offense that was reclassified as a capital felony, which was committed before the person attained 18 years of age shall be punished by a term of imprisonment for life if, after a sentencing hearing conducted by the court in accordance with s. 921.1401, the court finds that life imprisonment is an appropriate sentence. If the court finds that life imprisonment is not an appropriate sentence, such person shall be punished by a term of imprisonment of at least 40 years. A person sentenced pursuant to this subparagraph is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(a).

2. A person who did not actually kill, intend to kill, or attempt to kill the victim and who is convicted under s. 782.04of a capital felony, or an offense that was reclassified as a capital felony, which was committed before the person attained 18 years of age may be punished by a term of imprisonment for life or by a term of years equal to life if, after a sentencing hearing conducted by the court in accordance with s. 921.1401, the court finds that life imprisonment is an appropriate sentence. A person who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of more than 15 years is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(c).

3. The court shall make a written finding as to whether a person is eligible for a sentence review hearing under s. 921.1402(2)(a) or (c). Such a finding shall be based upon whether the person actually killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim. The court may find that multiple defendants killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim.

(2) In the event the death penalty in a capital felony is held to be unconstitutional by the Florida Supreme Court or the United States Supreme Court, the court having jurisdiction over a person previously sentenced to death for a capital felony shall cause such person to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence such person to life imprisonment as provided in subsection (1). No sentence of death shall be reduced as a result of a determination that a method of execution is held to be unconstitutional under the State Constitution or the Constitution of the United States.

(3) A person who has been convicted of any other designated felony may be punished as follows:

(a) 1. For a life felony committed before October 1, 1983, by a term of imprisonment for life or for a term of at least 30 years.

2. For a life felony committed on or after October 1, 1983, by a term of imprisonment for life or by a term of imprisonment not exceeding 40 years.

3. Except as provided in subparagraph 4., for a life felony committed on or after July 1, 1995, by a term of imprisonment for life or by imprisonment for a term of years not exceeding life imprisonment.

4. a. Except as provided in sub-subparagraph b., for a life felony committed on or after September 1, 2005, which is a violation of s. 800.04(5)(b), by:

(I) A term of imprisonment for life; or

(II) A split sentence that is a term of at least 25 years’ imprisonment and not exceeding life imprisonment, followed by probation or community control for the remainder of the person’s natural life, as provided in s. 948.012(4).

b. For a life felony committed on or after July 1, 2008, which is a person’s second or subsequent violation of s. 800.04(5)(b), by a term of imprisonment for life.

5. Notwithstanding subparagraphs 1.-4., a person who is convicted under s. 782.04 of an offense that was reclassified as a life felony which was committed before the person attained 18 years of age may be punished by a term of imprisonment for life or by a term of years equal to life imprisonment if the judge conducts a sentencing hearing in accordance with s. 921.1401 and finds that life imprisonment or a term of years equal to life imprisonment is an appropriate sentence.

a. A person who actually killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim and is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of more than 25 years is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(b).

b. A person who did not actually kill, intend to kill, or attempt to kill the victim and is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of more than 15 years is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(c).

c. The court shall make a written finding as to whether a person is eligible for a sentence review hearing under s. 921.1402(2)(b) or (c). Such a finding shall be based upon whether the person actually killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim. The court may find that multiple defendants killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim.

6. For a life felony committed on or after October 1, 2014, which is a violation of s. 787.06(3)(g), by a term of imprisonment for life.

(b) 1. For a felony of the first degree, by a term of imprisonment not exceeding 30 years or, when specifically provided by statute, by imprisonment for a term of years not exceeding life imprisonment.

2. Notwithstanding subparagraph 1., a person convicted under s. 782.04 of a first degree felony punishable by a term of years not exceeding life imprisonment, or an offense that was reclassified as a first degree felony punishable by a term of years not exceeding life, which was committed before the person attained 18 years of age may be punished by a term of years equal to life imprisonment if the judge conducts a sentencing hearing in accordance with s. 921.1401and finds that a term of years equal to life imprisonment is an appropriate sentence.

a. A person who actually killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim and is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of more than 25 years is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(b).

b. A person who did not actually kill, intend to kill, or attempt to kill the victim and is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of more than 15 years is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(c).

c. The court shall make a written finding as to whether a person is eligible for a sentence review hearing under s. 921.1402(2)(b) or (c). Such a finding shall be based upon whether the person actually killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim. The court may find that multiple defendants killed, intended to kill, or attempted to kill the victim.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b), a person convicted of an offense that is not included in s. 782.04 but that is an offense that is a life felony or is punishable by a term of imprisonment for life or by a term of years not exceeding life imprisonment, or an offense that was reclassified as a life felony or an offense punishable by a term of imprisonment for life or by a term of years not exceeding life imprisonment, which was committed before the person attained 18 years of age may be punished by a term of imprisonment for life or a term of years equal to life imprisonment if the judge conducts a sentencing hearing in accordance with s. 921.1401 and finds that life imprisonment or a term of years equal to life imprisonment is an appropriate sentence. A person who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of more than 20 years is entitled to a review of his or her sentence in accordance with s. 921.1402(2)(d).

(d) For a felony of the second degree, by a term of imprisonment not exceeding 15 years.

(e) For a felony of the third degree, by a term of imprisonment not exceeding 5 years.

(4) A person who has been convicted of a designated misdemeanor may be sentenced as follows:

(a) For a misdemeanor of the first degree, by a definite term of imprisonment not exceeding 1 year;

(b) For a misdemeanor of the second degree, by a definite term of imprisonment not exceeding 60 days.

(5) Any person who has been convicted of a noncriminal violation may not be sentenced to a term of imprisonment nor to any other punishment more severe than a fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty, except as provided in chapter 316 or by ordinance of any city or county.

(6) Nothing in this section shall be construed to alter the operation of any statute of this state authorizing a trial court, in its discretion, to impose a sentence of imprisonment for an indeterminate period within minimum and maximum limits as provided by law, except as provided in subsection (1).

(7) This section does not deprive the court of any authority conferred by law to decree a forfeiture of property, suspend or cancel a license, remove a person from office, or impose any other civil penalty. Such a judgment or order may be included in the sentence.

(8)(a) The sentencing guidelines that were effective October 1, 1983, and any revisions thereto, apply to all felonies, except capital felonies, committed on or after October 1, 1983, and before January 1, 1994, and to all felonies, except capital felonies and life felonies, committed before October 1, 1983, when the defendant affirmatively selects to be sentenced pursuant to such provisions.

(b) The 1994 sentencing guidelines, that were effective January 1, 1994, and any revisions thereto, apply to all felonies, except capital felonies, committed on or after January 1, 1994, and before October 1, 1995.

(c) The 1995 sentencing guidelines that were effective October 1, 1995, and any revisions thereto, apply to all felonies, except capital felonies, committed on or after October 1, 1995, and before October 1, 1998.

(d) The Criminal Punishment Code applies to all felonies, except capital felonies, committed on or after October 1, 1998. Any revision to the Criminal Punishment Code applies to sentencing for all felonies, except capital felonies, committed on or after the effective date of the revision.

(e) Felonies, except capital felonies, with continuing dates of enterprise shall be sentenced under the sentencing guidelines or the Criminal Punishment Code in effect on the beginning date of the criminal activity.

(9)(a) 1. “Prison releasee reoffender” means any defendant who commits, or attempts to commit:

a. Treason;

b. Murder;

c. Manslaughter;

d. Sexual battery;

e. Carjacking;

f. Home-invasion robbery;

g. Robbery;

h. Arson;

i. Kidnapping;

j. Aggravated assault with a deadly weapon;

k. Aggravated battery;

l. Aggravated stalking;

m. Aircraft piracy;

n. Unlawful throwing, placing, or discharging of a destructive device or bomb;

o. Any felony that involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against an individual;

p. Armed burglary;

q. Burglary of a dwelling or burglary of an occupied structure; or

r. Any felony violation of s. 790.07, s. 800.04, s. 827.03, s. 827.071, or s. 847.0135(5);

within 3 years after being released from a state correctional facility operated by the Department of Corrections or a private vendor, a county detention facility following incarceration for an offense for which the sentence pronounced was a prison sentence, or a correctional institution of another state, the District of Columbia, the United States, any possession or territory of the United States, or any foreign jurisdiction, following incarceration for an offense for which the sentence is punishable by more than 1 year in this state.

2. “Prison releasee reoffender” also means any defendant who commits or attempts to commit any offense listed in sub-subparagraphs (a)1.a.–r. while the defendant was serving a prison sentence or on escape status from a state correctional facility operated by the Department of Corrections or a private vendor or while the defendant was on escape status from a correctional institution of another state, the District of Columbia, the United States, any possession or territory of the United States, or any foreign jurisdiction, following incarceration for an offense for which the sentence is punishable by more than 1 year in this state.

3. If the state attorney determines that a defendant is a prison releasee reoffender as defined in subparagraph 1., the state attorney may seek to have the court sentence the defendant as a prison releasee reoffender. Upon proof from the state attorney that establishes by a preponderance of the evidence that a defendant is a prison releasee reoffender as defined in this section, such defendant is not eligible for sentencing under the sentencing guidelines and must be sentenced as follows:

a. For a felony punishable by life, by a term of imprisonment for life;

b. For a felony of the first degree, by a term of imprisonment of 30 years;

c. For a felony of the second degree, by a term of imprisonment of 15 years; and

d. For a felony of the third degree, by a term of imprisonment of 5 years.

(b) A person sentenced under paragraph (a) shall be released only by expiration of sentence and shall not be eligible for parole, control release, or any form of early release. Any person sentenced under paragraph (a) must serve 100 percent of the court-imposed sentence.

(c) Nothing in this subsection shall prevent a court from imposing a greater sentence of incarceration as authorized by law, pursuant to s. 775.084 or any other provision of law.

(d) 1. It is the intent of the Legislature that offenders previously released from prison or a county detention facility following incarceration for an offense for which the sentence pronounced was a prison sentence who meet the criteria in paragraph (a) be punished to the fullest extent of the law and as provided in this subsection, unless the state attorney determines that extenuating circumstances exist which preclude the just prosecution of the offender, including whether the victim recommends that the offender not be sentenced as provided in this subsection.

2. For every case in which the offender meets the criteria in paragraph (a) and does not receive the mandatory minimum prison sentence, the state attorney must explain the sentencing deviation in writing and place such explanation in the case file maintained by the state attorney.

(10) If a defendant is sentenced for an offense committed on or after July 1, 2009, which is a third degree felony but not a forcible felony as defined in s. 776.08, and excluding any third degree felony violation under chapter 810, and if the total sentence points pursuant to s. 921.0024 are 22 points or fewer, the court must sentence the offender to a nonstate prison sanction. However, if the court makes written findings that a nonstate prison sanction could present a danger to the public, the court may sentence the offender to a state correctional facility pursuant to this section.

(11) The purpose of this section is to provide uniform punishment for those crimes made punishable under this section and, to this end, a reference to this section constitutes a general reference under the doctrine of incorporation by reference.

(1) An “aggravated assault” is an assault:

(a) With a deadly weapon without intent to kill; or

(b) With an intent to commit a felony.

(2) A person who commits aggravated assault commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

(3) For the purposes of sentencing under chapter 921, a violation of this section committed by a person acting in furtherance of a riot or an aggravated riot prohibited under s. 870.01 is ranked one level above the ranking under s. 921.0022 for the offense committed.

(1) A person commits felony battery if he or she:

(a) Actually and intentionally touches or strikes another person against the will of the other; and

(b) Causes great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement.

(2)(a) A person commits domestic battery by strangulation if the person knowingly and intentionally, against the will of another, impedes the normal breathing or circulation of the blood of a family or household member or of a person with whom he or she is in a dating relationship, so as to create a risk of or cause great bodily harm by applying pressure on the throat or neck of the other person or by blocking the nose or mouth of the other person. This paragraph does not apply to any act of medical diagnosis, treatment, or prescription which is authorized under the laws of this state.

(b) As used in this subsection, the term:

1. “Family or household member” has the same meaning as in s. 741.28.

2. “Dating relationship” means a continuing and significant relationship of a romantic or intimate nature.

(3) A person who commits felony battery or domestic battery by strangulation commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

(1) If the injunction for protection against stalking or cyberstalking has been violated and the respondent has not been arrested, the petitioner may contact the clerk of the circuit court of the county in which the violation is alleged to have occurred. The clerk shall assist the petitioner in preparing an affidavit in support of reporting the violation or directing the petitioner to the office operated by the court that has been designated by the chief judge of that circuit as the central intake point for violations of injunctions for protection where the petitioner can receive assistance in the preparation of the affidavit in support of the violation.

(2) The affidavit shall be immediately forwarded by the office assisting the petitioner to the state attorney of that circuit and to such judge as the chief judge determines to be the recipient of affidavits of violations of an injunction. If the affidavit alleges that a crime has been committed, the office assisting the petitioner shall also forward a copy of the petitioner’s affidavit to the appropriate law enforcement agency for investigation. No later than 20 days after receiving the initial report, the local law enforcement agency shall complete its investigation and forward a report to the state attorney. The policy adopted by the state attorney in each circuit under s. 741.2901(2) shall include a policy regarding intake of alleged violations of injunctions for protection against stalking or cyberstalking under this section. The intake shall be supervised by a state attorney who has been designated and assigned to handle stalking or cyberstalking cases. The state attorney shall determine within 30 working days whether his or her office will file criminal charges or prepare a motion for an order to show cause as to why the respondent should not be held in criminal contempt, or prepare both as alternative findings, or file notice that the case remains under investigation or is pending subject to some other action.

(3) If the court has knowledge that the petitioner or another person is in immediate danger if the court does not act before the decision of the state attorney to proceed, the court shall immediately issue an order of appointment of the state attorney to file a motion for an order to show cause as to why the respondent should not be held in contempt. If the court does not issue an order of appointment of the state attorney, it shall immediately notify the state attorney that the court is proceeding to enforce the violation through criminal contempt.

(4) A person who willfully violates an injunction for protection against stalking or cyberstalking issued pursuant to s. 784.0485, or a foreign protection order accorded full faith and credit pursuant to s. 741.315, by:

(a) Going to, or being within 500 feet of, the petitioner’s residence, school, place of employment, or a specified place frequented regularly by the petitioner and any named family members or individuals closely associated with the petitioner;

(b) Committing an act of stalking against the petitioner;

(c) Committing any other violation of the injunction through an intentional unlawful threat, word, or act to do violence to the petitioner;

(d) Telephoning, contacting, or otherwise communicating with the petitioner, directly or indirectly, unless the injunction specifically allows indirect contact through a third party;

(e) Knowingly and intentionally coming within 100 feet of the petitioner’s motor vehicle, whether or not that vehicle is occupied;

(f) Defacing or destroying the petitioner’s personal property, including the petitioner’s motor vehicle; or

(g) Refusing to surrender firearms or ammunition if ordered to do so by the court,

commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

(5) A person who suffers an injury or loss as a result of a violation of an injunction for protection against stalking or cyberstalking may be awarded economic damages for that injury or loss by the court issuing the injunction. Damages includes costs and attorney fees for enforcement of the injunction.