(1) If both of the parties by petition or otherwise have stated under oath or affirmation that the marriage is irretrievably broken or one of the parties has so stated and the other has not denied it, the court, after hearing, shall make a finding whether the marriage is irretrievably broken.

(2) If one of the parties has denied under oath or affirmation that the marriage is irretrievably broken, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including the circumstances that gave rise to filing the petition and the prospect of reconciliation, and shall:

(a) make a finding whether the marriage is irretrievably broken; or

(b) continue the matter for further hearing not fewer than 30 or more than 60 days later or as soon thereafter as the matter may be reached on the court’s calendar and may suggest to the parties that they seek counseling. At the adjourned hearing the court shall make a finding whether the marriage is irretrievably broken.

(3) A finding of irretrievable breakdown is a determination that there is no reasonable prospect of reconciliation.

The attorney general shall prepare uniform sample instructions and petition and order forms necessary for allowing an applicant to obtain a temporary restraining order under 40-4-121 and uniform sample affidavits and orders of inability to pay filing fees or other costs. The attorney general shall distribute samples of the restraining order and the inability-to-pay-filing-fees order forms to the clerk of the district court in each county and to justice, city, and municipal courts. The clerk of the district court, justices of the peace, city, and municipal courts shall make forms available to the public at no charge.

(1) An order issued by a municipal court, justice’s court, or city court pursuant to 40-4-121 is immediately reviewable by the judge of the district court at chambers upon the filing of a notice of appeal. The district judge may affirm, dissolve, or modify an order of a municipal court, justice’s court, or city court made pursuant to 40-4-121.

(2) Any case in which an order has been issued by a municipal court, justice’s court, or city court pursuant to 40-4-121 may be removed to district court upon filing of a notice of removal.

(1) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation or a proceeding for maintenance following dissolution of the marriage by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, the court may grant a maintenance order for either spouse only if it finds that the spouse seeking maintenance:

(a) lacks sufficient property to provide for the spouse’s reasonable needs; and

(b) is unable to be self-supporting through appropriate employment or is the custodian of a child whose condition or circumstances make it appropriate that the custodian not be required to seek employment outside the home.

(2) The maintenance order must be in amounts and for periods of time that the court considers just, without regard to marital misconduct, and after considering all relevant facts, including:

(a) the financial resources of the party seeking maintenance, including marital property apportioned to that party, and the party’s ability to meet the party’s needs independently, including the extent to which a provision for support of a child living with the party includes a sum for that party as custodian;

(b) the time necessary to acquire sufficient education or training to enable the party seeking maintenance to find appropriate employment;

(c) the standard of living established during the marriage;

(d) the duration of the marriage;

(e) the age and the physical and emotional condition of the spouse seeking maintenance; and

(f) the ability of the spouse from whom maintenance is sought to meet the spouse’s own needs while meeting those of the spouse seeking maintenance.

(3) The court shall seal any qualified domestic relations order, as defined in section 414(p) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 414(p), that is issued under this part except for access by the pension plan administrator of the plan for which benefits are being distributed by the order, the child support enforcement division, the parties, and each party’s counsel of record.

(1) The court may in its discretion amend a prior parenting plan if it finds, upon the basis of facts that have arisen since the prior plan or that were unknown to the court at the time of entry of the prior plan, that a change has occurred in the circumstances of the child and that the amendment is necessary to serve the best interest of the child.

(a) In determining how a proposed change will affect the child, the court shall consider the potential impact of the change on the criteria in 40-4-212 and whether:

(i) the parents agree to the amendment;

(ii) the child has been integrated into the family of the petitioner with consent of the parents;

(iii) the child is 14 years of age or older and desires the amendment; or

(iv) one parent has willfully and consistently:

(A) refused to allow the child to have any contact with the other parent; or

(B) attempted to frustrate or deny contact with the child by the other parent.

(b) If one parent has changed or intends to change the child’s residence in a manner that significantly affects the child’s contact with the other parent, the court shall consider, in addition to all the criteria in 40-4-212 and subsection (1)(a):

(i) the feasibility of preserving the relationship between the nonrelocating parent and the child through suitable visitation arrangements, considering the logistics and financial circumstances of the parties;

(ii) the reasons of each parent for seeking or opposing the change of residence;

(iii) whether the parent seeking to change the child’s residence has demonstrated a willingness to promote the relationship between the child and the nonrelocating parent; and

(iv) whether reasonable alternatives to the proposed change of residence are available to the parent seeking to relocate.

(2) A court may modify a de facto parenting arrangement in accordance with the factors set forth in 40-4-212.

(3) The court shall presume a parent is not acting in the child’s best interest if the parent does any of the acts specified in subsection (1)(a)(iv) or (8).

(4) The court may amend the prior parenting plan based on subsection (1)(b) to provide a new residential schedule for parental contact with the child and to apportion transportation costs between the parents.

(5) Attorney fees and costs must be assessed against a party seeking frivolous or repeated amendment if the court finds that the amendment action is vexatious and constitutes harassment.

(6) A parenting plan may be amended pursuant to 40-4-221 upon the death of one parent.

(7) As used in this section, “prior parenting plan” means a parenting determination contained in a judicial decree or order made in a parenting proceeding. In proceedings for amendment under this section, a proposed amended parenting plan must be filed and served with the motion for amendment and with the response to the motion for amendment. Preference must be given to carrying out the parenting plan.

(8)(a) If a parent or other person residing in that parent’s household has been convicted of any of the crimes listed in subsection (8)(b), the other parent or any other person who has been granted rights to the child pursuant to court order may file an objection to the current parenting order with the court. The parent or other person having rights to the child pursuant to court order shall give notice to the other parent of the objection as provided by the Montana Rules of Civil Procedure, and the other parent has 21 days from the notice to respond. If the parent who receives notice of objection fails to respond within 21 days, the parenting rights of that parent are suspended until further order of the court. If that parent responds and objects, a hearing must be held within 30 days of the response.

(b) This subsection (8) applies to the following crimes:

(i) deliberate homicide, as described in 45-5-102;

(ii) mitigated deliberate homicide, as described in 45-5-103;

(iii) sexual assault, as described in 45-5-502;

(iv) sexual intercourse without consent, as described in 45-5-503;

(v) deviate sexual conduct with an animal or dead human body, as described in 45-2-101 and prohibited under 45-8-218;

(vi) incest, as described in 45-5-507;

(vii) child sex trafficking, as described in 45-5-711;

(viii) endangering the welfare of children, as described in 45-5-622;

(ix) partner or family member assault of the type described in 45-5-206(1)(a);

(x) sexual abuse of children, as described in 45-5-625; and

(xi) strangulation of a partner or family member, as described in 45-5-215.

(9) Except in cases of physical, sexual, or emotional abuse or threat of physical, sexual, or emotional abuse by one parent against the other parent or the child or when a parent has been convicted of a crime enumerated in subsection (8)(b), the court may, in its discretion, order the parties to participate in a dispute resolution process to assist in resolving any conflicts between the parties regarding amendment of the parenting plan. The dispute resolution process may include counseling or mediation by a specified person or agency, and court action.

(10)(a) Except as provided in subsection (10)(b), a court-ordered or de facto modification of a parenting plan based in whole or in part on military service orders of a parent is temporary and reverts to the previous parenting plan at the end of the military service. If a motion for an amendment of a parenting plan is filed after a parent returns from military service, the court may not consider a parent’s absence due to that military service in its determination of the best interest of the child.

(b) A parent who has performed or is performing military service, as defined in 10-1-1003, may consent to a temporary or permanent modification of a parenting plan:

(i) for the duration of the military service; or

(ii) that continues past the end of the military service.

(1) A court of this state may grant any relief normally available under the law of this state to enforce a registered child custody determination made by a court of another state.

(2) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce, but may not modify, except in accordance with 40-7-105, 40-7-107 through 40-7-110, 40-7-112, and part 2 of this chapter, a registered child custody determination of a court of another state.

(1) A petition under this part must be verified. Certified copies of all orders sought to be enforced and of any order confirming registration must be attached to the petition. A copy of a certified copy of an order may be attached instead of the original.

(2) A petition for enforcement of a child custody determination must state:

(a) whether the court that issued the determination identified the jurisdictional basis that it relied upon in exercising jurisdiction and, if so, what the basis was;

(b) whether the determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court whose decision must be enforced under this chapter or federal law and, if so, identify the court, the case number of the proceeding, and the action taken;

(c) whether any proceeding has been commenced that could affect the current proceeding, including proceedings relating to domestic violence, protective orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions, and if so, identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;

(d) the present physical address of the child and the respondent, if known;

(e) whether relief in addition to the immediate physical custody of the child and attorney fees is sought, including a request for assistance from law enforcement officials and, if so, the relief sought; and

(f) if the child custody determination has been registered and confirmed under 40-7-305, the date and place of registration.

(3) Upon the filing of a petition, the court shall issue an order directing the respondent to appear in person with or without the child at a hearing and may enter any order necessary to ensure the safety of the parties and the child. The hearing must be held on the next judicial day after service of the order unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The court may extend the date of hearing at the request of the petitioner.

(4) The order must state the time and place of the hearing and must advise the respondent that at the hearing, the court will order the delivery of the child and the payment of fees, costs, and expenses under 40-7-312 and may set an additional hearing to determine whether further relief is appropriate, unless the respondent appears and establishes that:

(a) the child custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under 40-7-305 and that:

(i) the issuing court did not have jurisdiction under 40-7-105, 40-7-107 through 40-7-110, 40-7-112, and part 2 of this chapter;

(ii) the child custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under 40-7-105, 40-7-107 through 40-7-110, 40-7-112, and part 2 of this chapter or federal law; or

(iii) the respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with the standards of 40-7-106, in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or

(b) the child custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under 40-7-305, but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under 40-7-105, 40-7-107 through 40-7-110, 40-7-112, and part 2 of this chapter or federal law.

(1) A person may file a petition for an order of protection if:

(a) the petitioner is in reasonable apprehension of bodily injury by the petitioner’s partner or family member as defined in 45-5-206; or

(b) the petitioner is a victim of one of the following offenses committed by a partner or family member:

(i) assault as defined in 45-5-201;

(ii) aggravated assault as defined in 45-5-202;

(iii) intimidation as defined in 45-5-203;

(iv) partner or family member assault as defined in 45-5-206;

(v) criminal endangerment as defined in 45-5-207;

(vi) negligent endangerment as defined in 45-5-208;

(vii) assault on a minor as defined in 45-5-212;

(viii) assault with a weapon as defined in 45-5-213;

(ix) strangulation of a partner or family member as defined in 45-5-215;

(x) unlawful restraint as defined in 45-5-301;

(xi) kidnapping as defined in 45-5-302;

(xii) aggravated kidnapping as defined in 45-5-303; or

(xiii) arson as defined in 45-6-103.

(2) The following individuals are eligible to file a petition for an order of protection against the offender regardless of the individual’s relationship to the offender:

(a) a victim of assault as defined in 45-5-201, aggravated assault as defined in 45-5-202, assault on a minor as defined in 45-5-212, stalking as defined in 45-5-220, incest as defined in 45-5-507, sexual assault as defined in 45-5-502, sexual intercourse without consent as defined in 45-5-503, sexual abuse of children as defined in 45-5-625, or human trafficking as defined in 45-5-701; or

(b) a partner or family member of a victim of deliberate homicide as defined in 45-5-102 or mitigated deliberate homicide as defined in 45-5-103.

(3) A parent, guardian ad litem, or other representative of the petitioner may file a petition for an order of protection on behalf of a minor petitioner against the petitioner’s abuser. At its discretion, a court may appoint a guardian ad litem for a minor petitioner.

(4) The following persons may file a petition for an order of protection on behalf of an adult:

(a) a guardian appointed pursuant to Title 72, chapter 5, part 3, on behalf of an incapacitated person;

(b) a conservator appointed pursuant to Title 72, chapter 5, part 4, on behalf of a protected person; or

(c) an agent on behalf of an incapacitated principal. For the purposes of this subsection (4)(c), “incapacitated” has the same meaning as “incapacitated person” provided in 72-5-101.

(5) A guardian must be appointed for a minor respondent when required by Rule 17(c), Montana Rules of Civil Procedure, or by 25-31-602. An order of protection is effective against a respondent regardless of the respondent’s age.

(6) A petitioner is eligible for an order of protection whether or not:

(a) the petitioner reports the abuse to law enforcement;

(b) charges are filed; or

(c) the petitioner participates in a criminal prosecution.(7) If a petitioner is otherwise entitled to an order of protection, the length of time between the abusive incident and the petitioner’s application for an order of protection is irrelevant.

(1) There is a partner and family member assault intervention and treatment fund account in the state special revenue fund in the state treasury. The money in the account is allocated to the board of crime control to fund services to victims of partner or family member assault, as provided in subsections (2) and (3).

(2) The board shall distribute the money in the account, as provided in subsection (3), to agencies that provide direct services to victims of partner or family member assault, including but not limited to shelters, crisis lines, safe homes, and victim’s counseling providers. A service provider is eligible to receive money under this section for services provided to a victim of partner or family member assault, whether or not the victim seeks or receives services within the criminal justice system.

(3) A service provider that provides direct services to victims of partner or family member assault shall apply to the board for distribution of money under this section. The board shall evaluate a provider’s eligibility to receive money under this section based on available money, the needs of the provider, whether the provider includes programs focused on prevention of partner and family member assault, the quality of services provided by the provider, the need for services in the community, and the need for improved or continuing services in the community.

(1) A petitioner may seek a temporary order of protection from a court listed in 40-15-301. The petitioner shall file a sworn petition that states that the petitioner is in reasonable apprehension of bodily injury or is a victim of one of the offenses listed in 40-15-102, has a relationship to the respondent if required by 40-15-102, and is in danger of harm if the court does not issue a temporary order of protection immediately.

(2) Upon a review of the petition and a finding that the petitioner is in danger of harm if the court does not act immediately, the court shall issue a temporary order of protection that grants the petitioner appropriate relief. The temporary order of protection may include any or all of the following orders:

(a) prohibiting the respondent from threatening to commit or committing acts of violence against the petitioner and any designated family member;

(b) prohibiting the respondent from harassing, annoying, disturbing the peace of, telephoning, contacting, or otherwise communicating, directly or indirectly, with the petitioner, any named family member, any other victim of this offense, or a witness to the offense;

(c) prohibiting the respondent from removing a child from the jurisdiction of the court;

(d) directing the respondent to stay 1,500 feet or other appropriate distance away from the petitioner, the petitioner’s residence, the school or place of employment of the petitioner, or any specified place frequented by the petitioner and by any other designated family or household member;

(e) removing and excluding the respondent from the residence of the petitioner, regardless of ownership of the residence;

(f) prohibiting the respondent from possessing or using the firearm used in the assault;

(g) prohibiting the respondent from transferring, encumbering, concealing, or otherwise disposing of any property except in the usual course of business or for the necessities of life and, if so restrained, requiring the respondent to notify the petitioner, through the court, of any proposed extraordinary expenditures made after the order is issued;

(h) directing the transfer of possession and use of the residence, an automobile, and other essential personal property, regardless of ownership of the residence, automobile, or essential personal property, and directing an appropriate law enforcement officer to accompany the petitioner to the residence to ensure that the petitioner safely obtains possession of the residence, automobile, or other essential personal property or to supervise the petitioner’s or respondent’s removal of essential personal property;

(i) directing the respondent to complete violence counseling, which may include alcohol or chemical dependency counseling or treatment, if appropriate;

(j) directing other relief considered necessary to provide for the safety and welfare of the petitioner or other designated family member.

(3) If the petitioner has fled the parties’ residence, notice of the petitioner’s new residence must be withheld, except by order of the court for good cause shown.

(4) The court may, without requiring prior notice to the respondent, issue an immediate temporary order of protection for up to 20 days if the court finds, on the basis of the petitioner’s sworn petition or other evidence, that harm may result to the petitioner if an order is not issued before the 20-day period for responding has elapsed.

(5) A temporary order of protection issued pursuant to this section must conspicuously bear the following: “Violation of this order is a criminal offense under 45-5-626 and may also be a criminal offense under 45-5-220.”

The attorney general shall prepare uniform sample instructions, petition forms, and order forms for temporary orders of protection and for orders of protection. The attorney general shall distribute samples of the instructions, petitions, and forms to the clerk of the district court in each county and to justices’, municipal, and city courts. The clerk of the district court, justices of the peace, and municipal and city court judges shall make forms available to the public at no charge.

(1) An order issued by a justice’s court, municipal court, or city court pursuant to 40-15-201 is immediately reviewable by the district judge upon the filing of a notice of appeal. The district judge may affirm, dissolve, or modify an order of a justice’s court, municipal court, or city court made pursuant to 40-15-201 or 40-15-204.

(2) A case in which an order has been issued by a justice’s court, municipal court, or city court pursuant to 40-15-201 or 40-15-204 may be removed to district court upon filing of a notice of removal.

(3) If a temporary order of protection or an order of protection issued by a court of limited jurisdiction is appealed or removed to an appellate court, the order continues in full force and effect unless modified by the appellate court.

(1) “Foreign protection order” means a protection order issued by a court of another state.

(2) “Issuing state” means the state whose court issues a protection order.

(3) “Mutual foreign protection order” means a foreign protection order that includes provisions in favor of both the protected individual seeking enforcement of the order and the respondent.

(4) “Protected individual” means an individual protected by a protection order.

(5) “Protection order” means an injunction or other order issued by a court under the domestic violence, family violence, sexual assault, or stalking laws of the issuing state to prevent an individual from engaging in violent or threatening acts against, harassment of, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to another individual.

(6) “Respondent” means the individual against whom enforcement of a protection order is sought.

(7) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. The term includes an Indian tribe or band that has jurisdiction to issue protection orders.

(1) A law enforcement officer of this state, upon determining that there is probable cause to believe that a valid foreign protection order exists and that the order has been violated, shall enforce the order as if it were the order of a court of this state. Presentation of a protection order that identifies both the protected individual and the respondent and, on its face, is currently in effect constitutes probable cause to believe that a valid foreign protection order exists. For the purposes of this section, the protection order may be inscribed on a tangible medium or may have been stored in an electronic or other medium if it is retrievable in perceivable form. Presentation of a certified copy of a protection order is not required for enforcement.

(2) If a foreign protection order is not presented, a law enforcement officer of this state may consider other information in determining whether there is probable cause to believe that a valid foreign protection order exists.

(3) If a law enforcement officer of this state determines that an otherwise valid foreign protection order cannot be enforced because the respondent has not been notified or served with the order, the officer shall inform the respondent of the order, make a reasonable effort to serve the order upon the respondent, and allow the respondent a reasonable opportunity to comply with the order before enforcing the order.

(4) Registration or filing of an order in this state is not required for the enforcement of a valid foreign protection order pursuant to this part.

This state or a local governmental agency or a law enforcement officer, prosecuting attorney, clerk of court, or any state or local governmental official acting in an official capacity is immune from civil liability for an act or omission arising out of the registration or enforcement of a foreign protection order or the detention or arrest of an alleged violator of a foreign protection order if the act or omission was done in good faith in an effort to comply with this part.

In applying and construing this part, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.

(1) Minors are:
(a) males under 18 years of age;
(b) females under 18 years of age.
(2) All other persons are adults.

Unless otherwise specified in the statute, all words must be taken in the objective standard rather than in the subjective, and unless a different meaning plainly is required, the following definitions apply in this title:

(1) “Acts” has its usual and ordinary meaning and includes any bodily movement, any form of communication, and when relevant, a failure or omission to take action.

(2) “Administrative proceeding” means a proceeding the outcome of which is required to be based on a record or documentation prescribed by law or in which a law or a regulation is particularized in its application to an individual.

(3) “Another” means a person or persons other than the offender.

(4)(a) “Benefit” means gain or advantage or anything regarded by the beneficiary as gain or advantage, including benefit to another person or entity in whose welfare the beneficiary is interested.

(b) Benefit does not include an advantage promised generally to a group or class of voters as a consequence of public measures that a candidate engages to support or oppose.

(5) “Bodily injury” means physical pain, illness, or an impairment of physical condition and includes mental illness or impairment.

(6) “Child” or “children” means any individual or individuals under 18 years of age, unless a different age is specified.

(7) “Cohabit” means to live together under the representation of being married.

(8) “Common scheme” means a series of acts or omissions resulting in a pecuniary loss to the victim of at least $1,500, or $1,500 in value, motivated by a purpose to accomplish a single criminal objective or by a common purpose or plan that results in the repeated commission of the same offense or that affects the same person or the same persons or the property of the same person or persons.

(9) “Computer” means an electronic device that performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by the manipulation of electronic or magnetic impulses and includes all input, output, processing, storage, software, or communication facilities that are connected or related to that device in a system or network.

(10) “Computer network” means the interconnection of communication systems between computers or computers and remote terminals.

(11) “Computer program” means an instruction or statement or a series of instructions or statements, in a form acceptable to a computer, that in actual or modified form permits the functioning of a computer or computer system and causes it to perform specified functions.

(12) “Computer services” include but are not limited to computer time, data processing, and storage functions.

(13) “Computer software” means a set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation concerned with the operation of a computer system.

(14) “Computer system” means a set of related, connected, or unconnected devices, computer software, or other related computer equipment.

(15) “Conduct” means an act or series of acts and the accompanying mental state.

(16) “Conviction” means a judgment of conviction and sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or nolo contendere or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury.

(17) “Correctional institution” means a state prison, detention center, multijurisdictional detention center, private detention center, regional correctional facility, private correctional facility, or other institution for the incarceration of inmates under sentence for offenses or the custody of individuals awaiting trial or sentence for offenses.

(18) “Deception” means knowingly to:

(a) create or confirm in another an impression that is false and that the offender does not believe to be true;

(b) fail to correct a false impression that the offender previously has created or confirmed;

(c) prevent another from acquiring information pertinent to the disposition of the property involved;

(d) sell or otherwise transfer or encumber property without disclosing a lien, adverse claim, or other legal impediment to the enjoyment of the property, whether the impediment is or is not of value or is or is not a matter of official record; or

(e) promise performance that the offender does not intend to perform or knows will not be performed. Failure to perform, standing alone, is not evidence that the offender did not intend to perform.

(19) “Defamatory matter” means anything that exposes a person or a group, class, or association to hatred, contempt, ridicule, degradation, or disgrace in society or to injury to the person’s or its business or occupation.

(20) “Deprive” means:

(a) to withhold property of another:

(i) permanently;

(ii) for such a period as to appropriate a portion of its value; or

(iii) with the purpose to restore it only upon payment of reward or other compensation; or

(b) to dispose of the property of another and use or deal with the property so as to make it unlikely that the owner will recover it.

(21) “Deviate sexual relations” means any form of sexual intercourse with an animal or dead human body.

(22) “Document” means, with respect to offenses involving the medicaid program, any application, claim, form, report, record, writing, or correspondence, whether in written, electronic, magnetic, microfilm, or other form.

(23) “Felony” means an offense in which the sentence imposed upon conviction is death or imprisonment in a state prison for a term exceeding 1 year.

(24) “Forcible felony” means a felony that involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual.

(25) A “frisk” is a search by an external patting of a person’s clothing.

(26) “Government” includes a branch, subdivision, or agency of the government of the state or a locality within it.

(27) “Harm” means loss, disadvantage, or injury or anything so regarded by the person affected, including loss, disadvantage, or injury to a person or entity in whose welfare the affected person is interested.

(28) A “house of prostitution” means a place where prostitution or promotion of prostitution is regularly carried on by one or more persons under the control, management, or supervision of another.

(29) “Human being” means a person who has been born and is alive.

(30) An “illegal article” is an article or thing that is prohibited by statute, rule, or order from being in the possession of a person subject to official detention.

(31) “Inmate” means a person who is confined in a correctional institution.

(32)(a) “Intoxicating substance” means a controlled substance, as defined in Title 50, chapter 32, and an alcoholic beverage, including but not limited to a beverage containing ½ of 1% or more of alcohol by volume.

(b) Intoxicating substance does not include dealcoholized wine or a beverage or liquid produced by the process by which beer, ale, port, or wine is produced if it contains less than ½ of 1% of alcohol by volume.

(33) An “involuntary act” means an act that is:

(a) a reflex or convulsion;

(b) a bodily movement during unconsciousness or sleep;

(c) conduct during hypnosis or resulting from hypnotic suggestion; or

(d) a bodily movement that otherwise is not a product of the effort or determination of the actor, either conscious or habitual.

(34) “Juror” means a person who is a member of a jury, including a grand jury, impaneled by a court in this state in an action or proceeding or by an officer authorized by law to impanel a jury in an action or proceeding. The term “juror” also includes a person who has been drawn or summoned to attend as a prospective juror.

(35) “Knowingly”–a person acts knowingly with respect to conduct or to a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense when the person is aware of the person’s own conduct or that the circumstance exists. A person acts knowingly with respect to the result of conduct described by a statute defining an offense when the person is aware that it is highly probable that the result will be caused by the person’s conduct. When knowledge of the existence of a particular fact is an element of an offense, knowledge is established if a person is aware of a high probability of its existence. Equivalent terms, such as “knowing” or “with knowledge”, have the same meaning.

(36) “Medicaid” means the Montana medical assistance program provided for in Title 53, chapter 6.

(37) “Medicaid agency” has the meaning in 53-6-155.

(38) “Medicaid benefit” means the provision of anything of pecuniary value to or on behalf of a recipient under the medicaid program.

(39)(a) “Medicaid claim” means a communication, whether in oral, written, electronic, magnetic, or other form:

(i) that is used to claim specific services or items as payable or reimbursable under the medicaid program; or

(ii) that states income, expense, or other information that is or may be used to determine entitlement to or the rate of payment under the medicaid program.

(b) The term includes related documents submitted as a part of or in support of the claim.

(40) “Mentally disordered” means that a person suffers from a mental disease or disorder that renders the person incapable of appreciating the nature of the person’s own conduct.

(41) “Mentally incapacitated” means that a person is rendered temporarily incapable of appreciating or controlling the person’s own conduct as a result of the influence of an intoxicating substance.

(42) “Misdemeanor” means an offense for which the sentence imposed upon conviction is imprisonment in the county jail for a term or a fine, or both, or for which the sentence imposed is imprisonment in a state prison for a term of 1 year or less.

(43) “Negligently”–a person acts negligently with respect to a result or to a circumstance described by a statute defining an offense when the person consciously disregards a risk that the result will occur or that the circumstance exists or when the person disregards a risk of which the person should be aware that the result will occur or that the circumstance exists. The risk must be of a nature and degree that to disregard it involves a gross deviation from the standard of conduct that a reasonable person would observe in the actor’s situation. “Gross deviation” means a deviation that is considerably greater than lack of ordinary care. Relevant terms, such as “negligent” and “with negligence”, have the same meaning.

(44) “Nolo contendere” means a plea in which the defendant does not contest the charge or charges against the defendant and neither admits nor denies the charge or charges.

(45) “Obtain” means:

(a) in relation to property, to bring about a transfer of interest or possession, whether to the offender or to another; and

(b) in relation to labor or services, to secure the performance of the labor or service.

(46) “Obtains or exerts control” includes but is not limited to the taking, the carrying away, or the sale, conveyance, or transfer of title to, interest in, or possession of property.

(47) “Occupied structure” means any building, vehicle, or other place suitable for human occupancy or night lodging of persons or for carrying on business, whether or not a person is actually present, including any outbuilding that is immediately adjacent to or in close proximity to an occupied structure and that is habitually used for personal use or employment. Each unit of a building consisting of two or more units separately secured or occupied is a separate occupied structure.

(48) “Offender” means a person who has been or is liable to be arrested, charged, convicted, or punished for a public offense.

(49) “Offense” means a crime for which a sentence of death or of imprisonment or a fine is authorized. Offenses are classified as felonies or misdemeanors.

(50)(a) “Official detention” means imprisonment resulting from a conviction for an offense, confinement for an offense, confinement of a person charged with an offense, detention by a peace officer pursuant to arrest, detention for extradition or deportation, or lawful detention for the purpose of the protection of the welfare of the person detained or for the protection of society.

(b) Official detention does not include supervision of probation or parole, constraint incidental to release on bail, or an unlawful arrest unless the person arrested employed physical force, a threat of physical force, or a weapon to escape.

(51) “Official proceeding” means a proceeding heard or that may be heard before a legislative, a judicial, an administrative, or another governmental agency or official authorized to take evidence under oath, including any referee, hearings examiner, commissioner, notary, or other person taking testimony or deposition in connection with the proceeding.

(52) “Other state” means a state or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(53) “Owner” means a person other than the offender who has possession of or other interest in the property involved, even though the interest or possession is unlawful, and without whose consent the offender has no authority to exert control over the property.

(54) “Party official” means a person who holds an elective or appointive post in a political party in the United States by virtue of which the person directs or conducts or participates in directing or conducting party affairs at any level of responsibility.

(55) “Peace officer” means a person who by virtue of the person’s office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for offenses while acting within the scope of the person’s authority.

(56) “Pecuniary benefit” is benefit in the form of money, property, commercial interests, or anything else the primary significance of which is economic gain.

(57) “Person” includes an individual, business association, partnership, corporation, government, or other legal entity and an individual acting or purporting to act for or on behalf of a government or subdivision of government.

(58) “Physically helpless” means that a person is unconscious or is otherwise physically unable to communicate unwillingness to act.

(59) “Possession” is the knowing control of anything for a sufficient time to be able to terminate control.

(60) “Premises” includes any type of structure or building and real property.

(61) “Property” means a tangible or intangible thing of value. Property includes but is not limited to:

(a) real estate;

(b) money;

(c) commercial instruments;

(d) admission or transportation tickets;

(e) written instruments that represent or embody rights concerning anything of value, including labor or services, or that are otherwise of value to the owner;

(f) things growing on, affixed to, or found on land and things that are part of or affixed to a building;

(g) electricity, gas, and water;

(h) birds, animals, and fish that ordinarily are kept in a state of confinement;

(i) food and drink, samples, cultures, microorganisms, specimens, records, recordings, documents, blueprints, drawings, maps, and whole or partial copies, descriptions, photographs, prototypes, or models thereof;

(j) other articles, materials, devices, substances, and whole or partial copies, descriptions, photographs, prototypes, or models thereof that constitute, represent, evidence, reflect, or record secret scientific, technical, merchandising, production, or management information or a secret designed process, procedure, formula, invention, or improvement; and

(k) electronic impulses, electronically processed or produced data or information, commercial instruments, computer software or computer programs, in either machine- or human-readable form, computer services, any other tangible or intangible item of value relating to a computer, computer system, or computer network, and copies thereof.

(62) “Property of another” means real or personal property in which a person other than the offender has an interest that the offender has no authority to defeat or impair, even though the offender may have an interest in the property.

(63) “Public place” means a place to which the public or a substantial group has access.

(64)(a) “Public servant” means an officer or employee of government, including but not limited to legislators, judges, and firefighters, and a person participating as a juror, adviser, consultant, administrator, executor, guardian, or court-appointed fiduciary. The term “public servant” includes one who has been elected or designated to become a public servant.

(b) The term does not include witnesses.

(65) “Purposely”–a person acts purposely with respect to a result or to conduct described by a statute defining an offense if it is the person’s conscious object to engage in that conduct or to cause that result. When a particular purpose is an element of an offense, the element is established although the purpose is conditional, unless the condition negatives the harm or evil sought to be prevented by the law defining the offense. Equivalent terms, such as “purpose” and “with the purpose”, have the same meaning.

(66)(a) “Serious bodily injury” means bodily injury that:

(i) creates a substantial risk of death;

(ii) causes serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function or process of a bodily member or organ; or

(iii) at the time of injury, can reasonably be expected to result in serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function or process of a bodily member or organ.

(b) The term includes serious mental illness or impairment.

(67) “Sexual contact” means touching of the sexual or other intimate parts of the person of another, directly or through clothing, in order to knowingly or purposely:

(a) cause bodily injury to or humiliate, harass, or degrade another; or

(b) arouse or gratify the sexual response or desire of either party.

(68)(a) “Sexual intercourse” means penetration of the vulva, anus, or mouth of one person by the penis of another person, penetration of the vulva or anus of one person by a body member of another person, or penetration of the vulva or anus of one person by a foreign instrument or object manipulated by another person to knowingly or purposely:

(i) cause bodily injury or humiliate, harass, or degrade; or

(ii) arouse or gratify the sexual response or desire of either party.

(b) For purposes of subsection (68)(a), any penetration, however slight, is sufficient.

(69) “Solicit” or “solicitation” means to command, authorize, urge, incite, request, or advise another to commit an offense.

(70) “State” or “this state” means the state of Montana, all the land and water in respect to which the state of Montana has either exclusive or concurrent jurisdiction, and the air space above the land and water.

(71) “Statute” means an act of the legislature of this state.

(72) “Stolen property” means property over which control has been obtained by theft.

(73) A “stop” is the temporary detention of a person that results when a peace officer orders the person to remain in the peace officer’s presence.

(74) “Tamper” means to interfere with something improperly, meddle with it, make unwarranted alterations in its existing condition, or deposit refuse upon it.

(75) “Telephone” means any type of telephone, including but not limited to a corded, uncorded, cellular, or satellite telephone.

(76) “Threat” means a menace, however communicated, to:

(a) inflict physical harm on the person threatened or any other person or on property;

(b) subject any person to physical confinement or restraint;

(c) commit a criminal offense;

(d) accuse a person of a criminal offense;

(e) expose a person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule;

(f) harm the credit or business repute of a person;

(g) reveal information sought to be concealed by the person threatened;

(h) take action as an official against anyone or anything, withhold official action, or cause the action or withholding;

(i) bring about or continue a strike, boycott, or other similar collective action if the person making the threat demands or receives property that is not for the benefit of groups that the person purports to represent; or

(j) testify or provide information or withhold testimony or information with respect to another’s legal claim or defense.

(77)(a) “Value” means the market value of the property at the time and place of the crime or, if the market value cannot be satisfactorily ascertained, the cost of the replacement of the property within a reasonable time after the crime. If the offender appropriates a portion of the value of the property, the value must be determined as follows:

(i) The value of an instrument constituting an evidence of debt, such as a check, draft, or promissory note, is considered the amount due or collectible. The figure is ordinarily the face amount of the indebtedness less any portion of the indebtedness that has been satisfied.

(ii) The value of any other instrument that creates, releases, discharges, or otherwise affects any valuable legal right, privilege, or obligation is considered the amount of economic loss that the owner of the instrument might reasonably suffer by virtue of the loss of the instrument.

(iii) The value of electronic impulses, electronically produced data or information, computer software or programs, or any other tangible or intangible item relating to a computer, computer system, or computer network is considered to be the amount of economic loss that the owner of the item might reasonably suffer by virtue of the loss of the item. The determination of the amount of economic loss includes but is not limited to consideration of the value of the owner’s right to exclusive use or disposition of the item.

(b) When it cannot be determined if the value of the property is more or less than $1,500 by the standards set forth in subsection (77)(a), its value is considered to be an amount less than $1,500.

(c) Amounts involved in thefts committed pursuant to a common scheme or the same transaction, whether from the same person or several persons, may be aggregated in determining the value of the property.

(78) “Vehicle” means a device for transportation by land, water, or air or by mobile equipment, with provision for transport of an operator.

(79) “Weapon” means an instrument, article, or substance that, regardless of its primary function, is readily capable of being used to produce death or serious bodily injury.

(80) “Witness” means a person whose testimony is desired in an official proceeding, in any investigation by a grand jury, or in a criminal action, prosecution, or proceeding.

(1) A person commits the offense of mitigated deliberate homicide when the person purposely or knowingly causes the death of another human being or purposely or knowingly causes the death of a fetus of another with knowledge that the woman is pregnant but does so under the influence of extreme mental or emotional stress for which there is reasonable explanation or excuse. The reasonableness of the explanation or excuse must be determined from the viewpoint of a reasonable person in the actor’s situation.
(2) Mitigated deliberate homicide is a lesser included offense of deliberate homicide as defined in 45-5-102(1)(a), but is not a lesser included offense of deliberate homicide as defined in 45-5-102(1)(b).
(3) Mitigating circumstances that reduce deliberate homicide to mitigated deliberate homicide are not an element of the reduced crime that the state is required to prove or an affirmative defense that the defendant is required to prove. Neither party has the burden of proof as to mitigating circumstances, but either party may present evidence of mitigation.
(4) A person convicted of mitigated deliberate homicide shall be imprisoned in the state prison for a term of not less than 2 years or more than 40 years and may be fined not more than $50,000, except as provided in 46-18-219 and 46-18-222.

(1) A person commits the offense of assault if the person:

(a) purposely or knowingly causes bodily injury to another;

(b) negligently causes bodily injury to another with a weapon;

(c) purposely or knowingly makes physical contact of an insulting or provoking nature with any individual;

(d) purposely or knowingly causes reasonable apprehension of bodily injury in another; or

(e) purposely or knowingly provides an individual with rohypnol, flunitrazolam, or gamma-hydroxybutyrate without the individual’s consent.

(2) A person convicted of assault shall be fined not to exceed $500 or be imprisoned in the county jail for any term not to exceed 6 months, or both.

(1) A person commits the offense of partner or family member assault if the person:
(a) purposely or knowingly causes bodily injury to a partner or family member;
(b) negligently causes bodily injury to a partner or family member with a weapon; or
(c) purposely or knowingly causes reasonable apprehension of bodily injury in a partner or family member.
(2) For the purposes of Title 40, chapter 15, 45-5-231 through 45-5-234, 46-6-311, and this section, the following definitions apply:
(a) “Family member” means mothers, fathers, children, brothers, sisters, and other past or present family members of a household. These relationships include relationships created by adoption and remarriage, including stepchildren, stepparents, in-laws, and adoptive children and parents. These relationships continue regardless of the ages of the parties and whether the parties reside in the same household.
(b) “Partners” means spouses, former spouses, persons who have a child in common, and persons who have been or are currently in a dating or ongoing intimate relationship.
(3)(a)(i) An offender convicted of partner or family member assault shall be fined an amount not less than $100 or more than $1,000 and be imprisoned in the county jail for a term not to exceed 1 year or not less than 24 hours for a first offense.
(ii) An offender convicted of a second offense under this section shall be fined not less than $300 or more than $1,000 and be imprisoned in the county jail not less than 72 hours or more than 1 year.
(iii) Upon a first or second conviction, the offender may be ordered into misdemeanor probation as provided in 46-23-1005.
(iv) On a third or subsequent conviction for partner or family member assault, the offender shall be fined not less than $500 and not more than $50,000 and be imprisoned for a term not less than 30 days and not more than 5 years. If the term of imprisonment does not exceed 1 year, the person shall be imprisoned in the county jail. If the term of imprisonment exceeds 1 year, the person shall be imprisoned in the state prison.
(v) If the offense was committed within the vision or hearing of a minor, the judge shall consider the minor’s presence as a factor at the time of sentencing.
(b) For the purpose of determining the number of convictions under this section, a conviction means:
(i) a conviction, as defined in 45-2-101, under this section;
(ii) a conviction for domestic abuse under this section;
(iii) a conviction for a violation of a statute similar to this section in another state;
(iv) if the offender was a partner or family member of the victim, a conviction for aggravated assault under 45-5-202 or assault with a weapon under 45-5-213;
(v) a conviction for strangulation of a partner or family member under 45-5-215;
(vi) a conviction in another state for an offense related to domestic violence between partners or family members, as those terms are defined in this section, regardless of what the offense is named or whether it is misdemeanor or felony, if the offense involves conduct similar to conduct that is prohibited under 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or this section; or
(vii) a forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure the defendant’s appearance in court in this state or in another state for a violation of a statute similar to this section, which forfeiture has not been vacated.
(4)(a) An offender convicted of partner or family member assault is required to pay for and complete a counseling assessment with a focus on violence, controlling behavior, dangerousness, and chemical dependency. An investigative criminal justice report, as defined in 45-5-231, must be copied and sent to the offender intervention program, as defined in 45-5-231, to assist the counseling provider in properly assessing the offender’s need for counseling and treatment. Counseling providers shall take all required precautions to ensure the confidentiality of the report. If the report contains confidential information relating to the victim’s location or not related to the charged offense, that information must be deleted from the report prior to being sent to the offender intervention program.
(b) The offender shall complete all recommendations for counseling, referrals, attendance at psychoeducational groups, or treatment, including any indicated chemical dependency treatment, made by the counseling provider. The counseling provider must be approved by the court. The counseling must include a preliminary assessment for counseling, as defined in 45-5-231. The offender shall complete a minimum of 40 hours of counseling. The counseling may include attendance at psychoeducational groups, as defined in 45-5-231, in addition to the assessment. The preliminary assessment and counseling that holds the offender accountable for the offender’s violent or controlling behavior must meet the standards established pursuant to 44-7-210 and be:
(i) with a person licensed under Title 37, chapter 17, 22, or 23;
(ii) with a professional person as defined in 53-21-102; or
(iii) in a specialized domestic violence intervention program.
(c) The minimum counseling and attendance at psychoeducational groups provided in subsection (4)(b) must be directed to the violent or controlling conduct of the offender. Other issues indicated by the assessment may be addressed in additional counseling beyond the minimum 40 hours. Subsection (4)(b) does not prohibit the placement of the offender in other appropriate treatment if the court determines that there is no available treatment program directed to the violent or controlling conduct of the offender.
(5) In addition to any sentence imposed under subsections (3) and (4), after determining the financial resources and future ability of the offender to pay restitution as provided for in 46-18-242, the court shall require the offender, if able, to pay the victim’s reasonable actual medical, housing, wage loss, and counseling costs.
(6) In addition to the requirements of subsection (5), if financially able, the offender must be ordered to pay for the costs of the offender’s probation, if probation is ordered by the court.
(7) The court may prohibit an offender convicted under this section from possession or use of the firearm used in the assault. The court may enforce 45-8-323 if a firearm was used in the assault.
(8) The court shall provide an offender with a written copy of the offender’s sentence at the time of sentencing or within 2 weeks of sentencing if the copy is sent electronically or by mail.

(1) A court may issue a standing no contact order and direct law enforcement to serve the order on a defendant charged with or arrested for a violation of 45-5-206 or, if the victim is a partner or family member of the defendant, a violation of 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or [section 1]. The court order may specify conditions necessary to enhance the safety of any protected person. The court-ordered conditions may include prohibiting the defendant from contacting the protected person in person, by a third party, by telephone, by electronic communication, as defined in 45-8-213, and in writing. The court may impose up to a 1,500-foot restriction on the defendant to stay away from the protected person’s location.

(2) Notice of the no contact order must be given orally and in writing by a peace officer at the time that the offender is charged with or arrested for a violation of 45-5-206 or, if the victim is a partner or family member of the defendant, a violation of 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or [section 1]. One copy of the order must be given to the defendant, and one copy must be filed with the court.

(3) The charge of a violation of 45-5-206 or, if the victim is a partner or family member of the defendant, a violation of 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or [section 1] must be supported by a peace officer’s affidavit of probable cause.

(4) The no contact order issued at the time that the defendant is charged with or arrested for a violation of 45-5-206 or, if the victim is a partner or family member of the defendant, a violation of 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or [section 1] is effective for 72 hours or until the defendant makes the first appearance in court.

(5) The court order must state:

“You have been charged with or arrested for an assault on a partner or family member. You are not allowed to have contact with __________ (list names). You may not__________. Violation of this no contact order is a criminal offense under 45-5-209, MCA, and may result in your arrest. You may be arrested even if the person protected by the no contact order invites or allows you to violate the prohibitions. This order lasts 72 hours or until the court continues or changes the order.”

(6) The court shall review and amend, if appropriate, the no contact order at the defendant’s first appearance.

(7) A no contact order may be issued by a court with jurisdiction over violations of 45-5-206 or, if the victim is a partner or family member of the defendant, violations of 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or [section 1] at the time of the defendant’s arraignment or at any other appearance of the defendant, including sentencing. The no contact order must be in writing. A copy of the no contact order must be given to the defendant when it is issued by the court. The court order shall specify protected persons and prohibited contact, including but not limited to the restriction mentioned in subsection (1).

(8)(a) A person commits the offense of violation of a no contact order if the person, with knowledge of the order, purposely or knowingly violates any provision of any order issued under this section.

(b) Each contact or attempt to make contact with each protected person, directly or indirectly, is a separate offense. Consent of the protected person to prohibited contact is not a defense. A protected person may not be charged with a violation of a no contact order.

(c) An offender convicted of violation of a no contact order shall be fined an amount not to exceed $500 or be imprisoned in the county jail for a term not to exceed 6 months, or both.

(9) As used in this section, the following definitions apply:

(a) “No contact order” means a court order that prohibits a defendant charged with or convicted of an assault on a partner or family member from contacting a protected person.

(b) “Partner” or “family member” has the meaning provided in 45-5-206.

(c) “Protected person” means a victim of a partner or family member assault listed in a no contact order.

(1) A person commits the offense of assault with a bodily fluid if the person purposely causes one of the person’s bodily fluids to make physical contact with:

(a) a law enforcement officer, a staff person of a correctional or detention facility, or a health care provider, as defined in 50-4-504, including a health care provider performing emergency services, while the health care provider is acting in the course and scope of the health care provider’s profession and occupation:

(i) during or after an arrest for a criminal offense;

(ii) while the person is incarcerated in or being transported to or from a state prison, a county, city, or regional jail or detention facility, or a health care facility; or

(iii) if the person is a minor, while the youth is detained in or being transported to or from a county, city, or regional jail or detention facility or a youth detention facility, secure detention facility, regional detention facility, short-term detention center, correctional facility as defined in 41-5-103, health care facility, or shelter care facility; or

(b) an emergency responder.

(2) A person convicted of the offense of assault with a bodily fluid shall be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000 or incarcerated in a county jail or a state prison for a term not to exceed 1 year, or both.

(3) The youth court has jurisdiction of any violation of this section by a minor.

(4) As used in this section, the following definitions apply:

(a) “Bodily fluid” means any bodily secretion, including but not limited to feces, urine, blood, and saliva.(b) “Emergency responder” means a licensed medical services provider, law enforcement officer, firefighter, volunteer firefighter or officer of a nonprofit volunteer fire company, emergency care provider, emergency nurse, ambulance operator, provider of civil defense services, or any other person who in good faith renders emergency care or assistance at a crime scene or the scene of an emergency or accident.

(1) A person commits the offense of stalking if the person purposely or knowingly engages in a course of conduct directed at a specific person and knows or should know that the course of conduct would cause a reasonable person to:

(a) fear for the person’s own safety or the safety of a third person; or

(b) suffer other substantial emotional distress.

(2) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(a) “Course of conduct” means two or more acts, including but not limited to acts in which the offender directly or indirectly, by any action, method, communication, or physical or electronic devices or means, follows, monitors, observes, surveils, threatens, harasses, or intimidates a person or interferes with a person’s property.

(b) “Monitors” includes the use of any electronic, digital, or global positioning device or similar technological means.

(c) “Reasonable person” means a reasonable person under similar circumstances as the victim. This is an objective standard.

(d) “Substantial emotional distress” means significant mental suffering or distress that may but does not necessarily require medical or other professional treatment or counseling.

(3) This section does not apply to a constitutionally protected activity.

(4)(a) Except as provided in subsection (4)(b), for the first offense, a person convicted of stalking shall be imprisoned in the county jail for a term not to exceed 1 year or fined an amount not to exceed $1,000, or both.

(b) For a second or subsequent offense within 20 years or for a first offense when the offender violated any order of protection, when the offender used force or a weapon or threatened to use force or a weapon, or when the victim is a minor and the offender is at least 5 years older than the victim, the offender shall be imprisoned in the state prison for a term not to exceed 5 years or fined an amount not to exceed $10,000, or both.

(c) A person convicted of stalking may be sentenced to pay all medical, counseling, and other costs incurred by or on behalf of the victim as a result of the offense.

(5) Upon presentation of credible evidence of violation of this section, an order may be granted, as set forth in Title 40, chapter 15, restraining a person from engaging in the activity described in subsection (1).

(6) For the purpose of determining the number of convictions under this section, “conviction” means:

(a) a conviction, as defined in 45-2-101, in this state;

(b) a conviction for a violation of a statute similar to this section in another state; or

(c) a forfeiture of bail or collateral deposited to secure the defendant’s appearance in court in this state or another state for a violation of a statute similar to this section, which forfeiture has not been vacated.

(7) Attempts by the accused person to contact or follow the stalked person after the accused person has been given actual notice that the stalked person does not want to be contacted or followed constitutes prima facie evidence that the accused person purposely or knowingly followed, harassed, threatened, or intimidated the stalked person.

(1) A person who knowingly has sexual intercourse with another person without consent or with another person who is incapable of consent commits the offense of sexual intercourse without consent. A person may not be convicted under this section based on the age of the person’s spouse, as provided in 45-5-501(1)(b)(iv).

(2) A person convicted of sexual intercourse without consent shall be punished by life imprisonment or by imprisonment in the state prison for a term of not more than 20 years and may be fined not more than $50,000, except as provided in 46-18-219, 46-18-222, and subsections (3), (4), and (5) of this section.

(3)(a) If the victim is less than 16 years old and the offender is 4 or more years older than the victim or if the offender inflicts bodily injury on anyone in the course of committing sexual intercourse without consent, the offender shall be punished by life imprisonment or by imprisonment in the state prison for a term of not less than 4 years or more than 100 years and may be fined not more than $50,000, except as provided in 46-18-219 and 46-18-222.

(b) If two or more persons are convicted of sexual intercourse without consent with the same victim in an incident in which each offender was present at the location where another offender’s offense occurred during a time period in which each offender could have reasonably known of the other’s offense, each offender shall be punished by life imprisonment or by imprisonment in the state prison for a term of not less than 5 years or more than 100 years and may be fined not more than $50,000, except as provided in 46-18-219 and 46-18-222.

(c) If the offender was previously convicted of an offense under this section or of an offense under the laws of another state or of the United States that if committed in this state would be an offense under this section and if the offender inflicted serious bodily injury on a person in the course of committing each offense, the offender shall be:

(i) punished by death as provided in 46-18-301 through 46-18-310, unless the offender is less than 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense; or

(ii) punished as provided in 46-18-219.

(4)(a) If the victim was 12 years of age or younger and the offender in the course of committing a violation of this section was 18 years of age or older at the time of the offense, the offender:

(i) shall be punished by imprisonment in a state prison for a term of 100 years. The court may not suspend execution or defer imposition of the first 25 years of a sentence of imprisonment imposed under this subsection (4)(a)(i) except as provided in 46-18-222(1) through (5), and during the first 25 years of imprisonment, the offender is not eligible for parole. The exception provided in 46-18-222(6) does not apply.

(ii) may be fined an amount not to exceed $50,000; and

(iii) shall be ordered to enroll in and successfully complete the educational phase and the cognitive and behavioral phase of a sexual offender treatment program provided or approved by the department of corrections.

(b) If the offender is released after the mandatory minimum period of imprisonment, the offender is subject to supervision by the department of corrections for the remainder of the offender’s life and shall participate in the program for continuous, satellite-based monitoring provided for in 46-23-1010.

(5) If the victim is at least 14 years of age and the offender is 18 years of age or younger, the offender may be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for a term of not more than 5 years and may be fined not more than $10,000 if:

(a) the offender has not previously been found to have committed or been adjudicated for a sexual offense as defined in 46-23-502;

(b) a psychosexual evaluation of the offender has been prepared and the court finds that registration is not necessary for protection of the public and that relief from registration is in the public’s best interest; and

(c) the court finds that the alleged conduct was consensual as indicated by words or overt actions indicating a freely given agreement to have sexual intercourse or sexual contact.

(6) In addition to any sentence imposed under subsection (2) or (3), after determining the financial resources and future ability of the offender to pay restitution as required by 46-18-242, the court shall require the offender, if able, to pay the victim’s reasonable medical and counseling costs that result from the offense. The amount, method, and time of payment must be determined in the same manner as provided for in 46-18-244.

(7) As used in subsections (3) and (4), an act “in the course of committing sexual intercourse without consent” includes an attempt to commit the offense or the act of flight after the attempt or commission.

(8) If as a result of sexual intercourse without consent a child is born, the offender who has been convicted of an offense under this section and who is the biological parent of the child resulting from the sexual intercourse without consent forfeits all parental and custodial rights to the child if the provisions of 46-1-401 have been followed.

(1) A person who has been granted parent-child contact under a parenting plan commits the offense of interference with parent-child contact if the person knowingly or purposely prevents, obstructs, or frustrates the rights of another person entitled to parent-child contact under an existing court order.

(2) A person convicted of the offense of interference with parent-child contact shall be fined an amount not to exceed $500 or be imprisoned in the county jail for a term not to exceed 5 days, or both.

(1) A person does not commit the offense of interference with parent-child contact or aggravated interference with parent-child contact if the person acts:

(a) with the consent of the person entitled to parent-child contact;
(b) under an existing court order; or
(c) with reasonable cause.

(2) Return of the child before arrest is a defense only with respect to the first commission of interference with parent-child contact or aggravated interference with parent-child contact.

(1) Except as provided in 69-6-104, a person commits the offense of violating privacy in communications if the person knowingly or purposely:

(a) with the purpose to terrify, intimidate, threaten, harass, or injure, communicates with a person by electronic communication and threatens to inflict injury or physical harm to the person or property of the person or makes repeated use of obscene, lewd, or profane language or repeated lewd or lascivious suggestions;

(b) uses an electronic communication to attempt to extort money or any other thing of value from a person or to disturb by repeated communications the peace, quiet, or right of privacy of a person at the place where the communications are received;

(c) records or causes to be recorded a conversation by use of a hidden electronic or mechanical device that reproduces a human conversation without the knowledge of all parties to the conversation; or

(d) with the purpose to terrify, intimidate, threaten, harass, or injure, publishes or distributes printed or electronic photographs, pictures, images, or films of an identifiable person without the consent of the person depicted that show:

(i) the visible genitals, anus, buttocks, or female breast if the nipple is exposed; or

(ii) the person depicted engaged in a real or simulated sexual act.

(2)(a) Subsection (1)(c) does not apply to:

(i) elected or appointed public officials or to public employees when the transcription or recording is done in the performance of official duty;

(ii) persons speaking at public meetings;

(iii) persons given warning of the transcription or recording. If one person provides the warning, either party may record.

(iv) a health care facility, as defined in 50-5-101, or a government agency that deals with health care if the recording is of a health care emergency telephone communication made to the facility or agency.

(b) Subsection (1)(d) does not apply to:

(i) images involving the voluntary exposure of a person’s genitals or intimate parts in public or commercial settings;

(ii) disclosures made in the public interest, including but not limited to the reporting of unlawful conduct;

(iii) disclosures made in the course of performing duties related to law enforcement, including reporting to authorities, criminal or news reporting, legal proceedings, or medical treatment; or

(iv) disclosures concerning historic, artistic, scientific, or educational materials.

(3) Except as provided in 69-6-104, a person commits the offense of violating privacy in communications if the person purposely intercepts an electronic communication. This subsection does not apply to elected or appointed public officials or to public employees when the interception is done in the performance of official duty or to persons given warning of the interception.

(4)(a) A person convicted of the offense of violating privacy in communications shall be fined an amount not to exceed $500 or be imprisoned in the county jail for a term not to exceed 6 months, or both.

(b) On a second conviction of subsection (1)(a), (1)(b), or (1)(d), a person shall be imprisoned in the county jail for a term not to exceed 1 year or be fined an amount not to exceed $1,000, or both.

(c) On a third or subsequent conviction of subsection (1)(a), (1)(b), or (1)(d), a person shall be imprisoned in the state prison for a term not to exceed 5 years or be fined an amount not to exceed $10,000, or both.

(5) Nothing in this section may be construed to impose liability on an interactive computer service for content provided by another person.

(6) As used in this section, the following definitions apply:

(a) “Electronic communication” means any transfer between persons of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photo-optical system.

(b) “Interactive computer service” means any information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, including specifically a service or system that provides access to the internet and this type of service or system as operated or offered by a library or educational institution.

(1) A peace officer may arrest a person when a warrant has not been issued if the officer has probable cause to believe that the person is committing an offense or that the person has committed an offense and existing circumstances require immediate arrest.

(2)(a) The summoning of a peace officer to a place of residence by a partner or family member constitutes an exigent circumstance for making an arrest. Arrest is the preferred response in partner or family member assault cases involving injury to the victim, use or threatened use of a weapon, violation of a restraining order, or other imminent danger to the victim.

(b) When a peace officer responds to a partner or family member assault complaint and if it appears that the parties were involved in mutual aggression, the officer shall evaluate the situation to determine who is the predominant aggressor. If, based on the officer’s evaluation, the officer determines that one person is the predominant aggressor, the officer may arrest only the predominant aggressor. A determination of who the predominant aggressor is must be based on but is not limited to the following considerations, regardless of who was the first aggressor:

(i) the prior history of violence between the partners or family members, if information about the prior history is available to the officer;

(ii) the relative severity of injuries received by each person;

(iii) whether an act of or threat of violence was taken in self-defense;

(iv) the relative sizes and apparent strength of each person;

(v) the apparent fear or lack of fear between the partners or family members; and

(vi) statements made by witnesses.

(3) If a judge has issued a standing order as provided in 45-5-209, a peace officer shall give a defendant charged with or arrested for partner or family member assault or a violation of 45-5-202, 45-5-213, or [section 1] if the victim is a partner or family member of the defendant, both written and verbal notice of the no contact order issued pursuant to 45-5-209. The notice must include specific conditions as ordered by the court.

When a peace officer is called to the scene of a reported incident of domestic violence but does not make an arrest, the peace officer shall file a written report with the officer commanding the law enforcement agency employing the peace officer, setting forth the reason or reasons for the decision.