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Statutes: Ohio

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

These statutes are current through Files 1 to 56 of the 135th General Assembly (2023-2024) and 2023 Statewide Issues 1 and 2 (November Election). You will find these and additional statutes online at: http://codes.ohio.gov/orc for all of Ohio Revised Code.

Title XIX. Courts--Municipal--Mayor's--County

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Chapter 1925. Small Claims Divisions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

1925.02 Jurisdiction; effect of counterclaim

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, a small claims division established under section 1925.01 of the Revised Code has jurisdiction in civil actions for the recovery of taxes and money only, for amounts not exceeding six thousand dollars, exclusive of interest and costs.

(2)(a) A small claims division does not have jurisdiction in any of the following:

(i) Libel, slander, replevin, malicious prosecution, and abuse of process actions;

(ii) Actions on any claim brought by an assignee or agent, except a claim to recover taxes that is filed by any authorized employee of a political subdivision or any authorized officer or employee of the state or a claim filed by a person designated under section 1925.18 of the Revised Code to act as the representative of a prosecuting attorney;

(iii) Actions for the recovery of punitive or exemplary damages.

(b) Division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not exclude actions for the recovery of damages specifically authorized by division (B) of either section 1345.09 or 1345.48 of the Revised Code from the jurisdiction of a small claims division.

(3) The territorial jurisdiction and venue of a small claims division are concurrent with that of the respective court under its procedures in ordinary civil actions. Jurisdiction over the person of a defendant may not be obtained by any form of published or substituted service or warrant of attorney.

(B) A counterclaim or cross-claim of six thousand dollars or less does not affect the jurisdiction of a small claims division. If a counterclaim or cross-claim exceeds six thousand dollars and if the case is transferred to the regular docket of the court, the court, if it finds that the counterclaim or cross-claim was without substantial grounds, may award reasonable attorney’s fees by special order to the party against whom the counterclaim or cross-claim is instituted, if that party prevails in the action on that claim.

(C) Any person who files a counterclaim or cross-claim shall file it with the small claims division and serve it on all other parties at least seven days prior to the date of the trial of the plaintiff’s claim in the original action.

(D) As used in this section:

(1) “Person” has the same meaning as in division (C) of section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also includes governmental entities.

(2) “Political subdivision” and “employee” of a political subdivision have the same meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) “State” has the same meaning as in section 109.36 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Officer or employee of the state” means any person who is serving in an elected or appointed office or position with the state or is employed by the state. “Officer or employee of the state” does not include any person elected, appointed, or employed by any political subdivision.

Title XXI. Courts--Probate--Juvenile

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Chapter 2151. Juvenile Courts--General Provisions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Construction; Definitions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2151.031 “Abused child” defined

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

As used in this chapter, an “abused child” includes any child who:
 

(A) Is the victim of “sexual activity” as defined under Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code, where such activity would constitute an offense under that chapter, except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted of the offense in order to find that the child is an abused child;
 

(B) Is the victim of disseminating, obtaining, or displaying “materials” or “performances” that are “harmful to juveniles” as defined under Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code, where such activity would constitute an offense under that chapter, except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted of the offense in order to find that the child is an abused child;
 

(C) Is endangered as defined in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code, except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted under that section in order to find that the child is an abused child;
 

(D) Exhibits evidence of any physical or mental injury or death, inflicted other than by accidental means, or an injury or death which is at variance with the history given of it. Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a child exhibiting evidence of corporal punishment or other physical disciplinary measure by a parent, guardian, custodian, caretaker, person having custody or control, or person in loco parentis of a child is not an abused child under this division if the measure is not prohibited under section 2919.22 of the Revised Code.
 

(E) Because of the acts of the child’s parents, guardian, custodian, or caretaker, suffers physical or mental injury that harms or threatens to harm the child’s health or welfare.
 

(F) Is subjected to out-of-home care child abuse.

Practice and Procedure

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2151.34 Protection orders

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section:

(1) “Court” means the juvenile division of the court of common pleas of the county in which the person to be protected by the protection order resides.

(2) “Victim advocate” means a person who provides support and assistance for a person who files a petition under this section.

(3) “Family or household member” has the same meaning as in section 3113.31 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Protection order issued by a court of another state” has the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Petitioner” means a person who files a petition under this section and includes a person on whose behalf a petition under this section is filed.

(6) “Respondent” means a person who is under eighteen years of age and against whom a petition is filed under this section.

(7) “Sexually oriented offense” has the same meaning as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.

(8) “Electronic monitoring” has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(9) “Companion animal” has the same meaning as in section 959.131 of the Revised Code.

(B) The court has jurisdiction over all proceedings under this section.

(C)(1) Any of the following persons may seek relief under this section by filing a petition with the court:

(a) Any person on behalf of that person;

(b) Any parent or adult family or household member on behalf of any other family or household member;

(c) Any person who is determined by the court in its discretion as an appropriate person to seek relief under this section on behalf of any child.

(2) The petition shall contain or state all of the following:

(a) An allegation that the respondent engaged in a violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code, committed a sexually oriented offense, or engaged in a violation of any municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any of those offenses against the person to be protected by the protection order, including a description of the nature and extent of the violation;

(b) If the petitioner seeks relief in the form of electronic monitoring of the respondent, an allegation that at any time preceding the filing of the petition the respondent engaged in conduct that would cause a reasonable person to believe that the health, welfare, or safety of the person to be protected was at risk, a description of the nature and extent of that conduct, and an allegation that the respondent presents a continuing danger to the person to be protected;

(c) A request for relief under this section.

(3) The court in its discretion may determine whether or not to give notice that a petition has been filed under division (C)(1) of this section on behalf of a child to any of the following:

(a) A parent of the child if the petition was filed by any person other than a parent of the child;

(b) Any person who is determined by the court to be an appropriate person to receive notice of the filing of the petition.

(D)(1) If a person who files a petition pursuant to this section requests an ex parte order, the court shall hold an ex parte hearing as soon as possible after the petition is filed, but not later than the next day after the court is in session after the petition is filed. The court, for good cause shown at the ex parte hearing, may enter any temporary orders, with or without bond, that the court finds necessary for the safety and protection of the person to be protected by the order. Immediate and present danger to the person to be protected by the protection order constitutes good cause for purposes of this section. Immediate and present danger includes, but is not limited to, situations in which the respondent has threatened the person to be protected by the protection order with bodily harm or in which the respondent previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a sexually oriented offense, or a violation of any municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any of those offenses against the person to be protected by the protection order.

(2)(a) If the court, after an ex parte hearing, issues a protection order described in division (E) of this section, the court shall schedule a full hearing for a date that is within ten court days after the ex parte hearing. The court shall give the respondent notice of, and an opportunity to be heard at, the full hearing. The court also shall give notice of the full hearing to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent. The court shall hold the full hearing on the date scheduled under this division unless the court grants a continuance of the hearing in accordance with this division. Under any of the following circumstances or for any of the following reasons, the court may grant a continuance of the full hearing to a reasonable time determined by the court:

(i) Prior to the date scheduled for the full hearing under this division, the respondent has not been served with the petition filed pursuant to this section and notice of the full hearing.

(ii) The parties consent to the continuance.

(iii) The continuance is needed to allow a party to obtain counsel.

(iv) The continuance is needed for other good cause.

(b) An ex parte order issued under this section does not expire because of a failure to serve notice of the full hearing upon the respondent before the date set for the full hearing under division (D)(2)(a) of this section or because the court grants a continuance under that division.

(3) If a person who files a petition pursuant to this section does not request an ex parte order, or if a person requests an ex parte order but the court does not issue an ex parte order after an ex parte hearing, the court shall proceed as in a normal civil action and grant a full hearing on the matter.

(E)(1)(a) After an ex parte or full hearing, the court may issue any protection order, with or without bond, that contains terms designed to ensure the safety and protection of the person to be protected by the protection order. The court may include within a protection order issued under this section a term requiring that the respondent not remove, damage, hide, harm, or dispose of any companion animal owned or possessed by the person to be protected by the order, and may include within the order a term authorizing the person to be protected by the order to remove a companion animal owned by the person to be protected by the order from the possession of the respondent.

(b) After a full hearing, if the court considering a petition that includes an allegation of the type described in division (C)(2)(b) of this section or the court, upon its own motion, finds upon clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner reasonably believed that the respondent’s conduct at any time preceding the filing of the petition endangered the health, welfare, or safety of the person to be protected and that the respondent presents a continuing danger to the person to be protected and if division (N) of this section does not prohibit the issuance of an order that the respondent be electronically monitored, the court may order that the respondent be electronically monitored for a period of time and under the terms and conditions that the court determines are appropriate. Electronic monitoring shall be in addition to any other relief granted to the petitioner.

(2)(a) Any protection order issued pursuant to this section shall be valid until a date certain but not later than the date the respondent attains nineteen years of age.

(b) Any protection order issued pursuant to this section may be renewed in the same manner as the original order was issued.

(3) A court may not issue a protection order that requires a petitioner to do or to refrain from doing an act that the court may require a respondent to do or to refrain from doing under division (E)(1) of this section unless all of the following apply:

(a) The respondent files a separate petition for a protection order in accordance with this section.

(b) The petitioner is served with notice of the respondent’s petition at least forty-eight hours before the court holds a hearing with respect to the respondent’s petition, or the petitioner waives the right to receive this notice.

(c) If the petitioner has requested an ex parte order pursuant to division (D) of this section, the court does not delay any hearing required by that division beyond the time specified in that division in order to consolidate the hearing with a hearing on the petition filed by the respondent.

(d) After a full hearing at which the respondent presents evidence in support of the request for a protection order and the petitioner is afforded an opportunity to defend against that evidence, the court determines that the petitioner has committed a violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a sexually oriented offense, or a violation of any municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any of those offenses against the person to be protected by the protection order issued pursuant to division (E)(3) of this section, or has violated a protection order issued pursuant to this section or section 2903.213 of the Revised Code relative to the person to be protected by the protection order issued pursuant to division (E)(3) of this section.

(4) No protection order issued pursuant to this section shall in any manner affect title to any real property.

(5)(a) A protection order issued under this section shall clearly state that the person to be protected by the order cannot waive or nullify by invitation or consent any requirement in the order.

(b) Division (E)(5)(a) of this section does not limit any discretion of a court to determine that a respondent alleged to have violated section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, violated a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to that section, or committed contempt of court, which allegation is based on an alleged violation of a protection order issued under this section, did not commit the violation or was not in contempt of court.

(6) Any protection order issued pursuant to this section shall include a provision that the court will automatically seal all of the records of the proceeding in which the order is issued on the date the respondent attains the age of nineteen years unless the petitioner provides the court with evidence that the respondent has not complied with all of the terms of the protection order. The protection order shall specify the date when the respondent attains the age of nineteen years.

(F)(1) The court shall cause the delivery of a copy of any protection order that is issued under this section to the petitioner, to the respondent, and to all law enforcement agencies that have jurisdiction to enforce the order. The court shall direct that a copy of the order be delivered to the respondent and the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent on the same day that the order is entered.

(2) Upon the issuance of a protection order under this section, the court shall provide the parties to the order with the following notice orally or by form:

“NOTICE

As a result of this order, it may be unlawful for you to possess or purchase a firearm, including a rifle, pistol, or revolver, or ammunition pursuant to federal law under 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) for the duration of this order. If you have any questions whether this law makes it illegal for you to possess or purchase a firearm or ammunition, you should consult an attorney.”

(3) All law enforcement agencies shall establish and maintain an index for the protection orders delivered to the agencies pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section. With respect to each order delivered, each agency shall note on the index the date and time that it received the order.

(4) Regardless of whether the petitioner has registered the protection order in the county in which the officer’s agency has jurisdiction pursuant to division (M) of this section, any officer of a law enforcement agency shall enforce a protection order issued pursuant to this section by any court in this state in accordance with the provisions of the order, including removing the respondent from the premises, if appropriate.

(G)(1) Any proceeding under this section shall be conducted in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure, except that a protection order may be obtained under this section with or without bond. An order issued under this section, other than an ex parte order, that grants a protection order, or that refuses to grant a protection order, is a final, appealable order. The remedies and procedures provided in this section are in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other available civil or criminal remedies or any other available remedies under Chapter 2151. or 2152. of the Revised Code.

(2) If as provided in division (G)(1) of this section an order issued under this section, other than an ex parte order, refuses to grant a protection order, the court, on its own motion, shall order that the ex parte order issued under this section and all of the records pertaining to that ex parte order be sealed after either of the following occurs:

(a) No party has exercised the right to appeal pursuant to Rule 4 of the Rules of Appellate Procedure.

(b) All appellate rights have been exhausted.

(H) The filing of proceedings under this section does not excuse a person from filing any report or giving any notice required by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code or by any other law.

(I) Any law enforcement agency that investigates an alleged violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code, an alleged commission of a sexually oriented offense, or an alleged violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any of those offenses shall provide information to the victim and the family or household members of the victim regarding the relief available under this section.

(J)(1) Subject to division (J)(2) of this section and regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved by a court of another county or by a court of another state, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge the petitioner any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing of a petition pursuant to this section, in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

(2) Regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved pursuant to this section, the court may assess costs against the respondent in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

(K)(1) A person who violates a protection order issued under this section is subject to the following sanctions:

(a) A delinquent child proceeding or a criminal prosecution for a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, if the violation of the protection order constitutes a violation of that section;

(b) Punishment for contempt of court.

(2) The punishment of a person for contempt of court for violation of a protection order issued under this section does not bar criminal prosecution of the person or a delinquent child proceeding concerning the person for a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code. However, a person punished for contempt of court is entitled to credit for the punishment imposed upon conviction of or adjudication as a delinquent child for a violation of that section, and a person convicted of or adjudicated a delinquent child for a violation of that section shall not subsequently be punished for contempt of court arising out of the same activity.

(L) In all stages of a proceeding under this section, a petitioner may be accompanied by a victim advocate.

(M)(1) A petitioner who obtains a protection order under this section may provide notice of the issuance or approval of the order to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county other than the county in which the order is issued by registering that order in the other county pursuant to division (M)(2) of this section and filing a copy of the registered order with a law enforcement agency in the other county in accordance with that division. A person who obtains a protection order issued by a court of another state may provide notice of the issuance of the order to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county of this state by registering the order in that county pursuant to section 2919.272 of the Revised Code and filing a copy of the registered order with a law enforcement agency in that county.

(2) A petitioner may register a protection order issued pursuant to this section in a county other than the county in which the court that issued the order is located in the following manner:

(a) The petitioner shall obtain a certified copy of the order from the clerk of the court that issued the order and present that certified copy to the clerk of the court of common pleas or the clerk of a municipal court or county court in the county in which the order is to be registered.

(b) Upon accepting the certified copy of the order for registration, the clerk of the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court shall place an endorsement of registration on the order and give the petitioner a copy of the order that bears that proof of registration.

(3) The clerk of each court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court shall maintain a registry of certified copies of protection orders that have been issued by courts in other counties pursuant to this section and that have been registered with the clerk.

(N) If the court orders electronic monitoring of the respondent under this section, the court shall direct the sheriff’s office or any other appropriate law enforcement agency to install the electronic monitoring device and to monitor the respondent. Unless the court determines that the respondent is indigent, the court shall order the respondent to pay the cost of the installation and monitoring of the electronic monitoring device.

(O) The court, in its discretion, may determine if the respondent is entitled to court-appointed counsel in a proceeding under this section.

Title XXIII. Courts--Common Pleas

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Chapter 2307. Civil Actions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Miscellaneous Provisions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2307.66 Civil cause of action for violation of RC 2917.211

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) A victim of a violation of section 2917.211 of the Revised Code has and may commence a civil cause of action against the offender for any of the following, in addition to reasonable attorney’s fees and the costs of bringing the action:

(1) An injunction or a temporary restraining order prohibiting further dissemination of the image that is the subject of the violation;

(2) Compensatory and punitive damages for harm resulting from the violation.

(B) The victim shall be presumed to have suffered harm as a result of the nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images.

(C) The cause of action created by this section is in addition to any other cause of action available under statutory or common law.

(D) As used in this section, “victim” has the same meaning as in section 2930.01 of the Revised Code.

Title XXIX. Crimes - Procedure

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Chapter 2901. General Provisions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

General Provisions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2901.02 Classification of offenses

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

As used in the Revised Code:

(A) Offenses include aggravated murder, murder, felonies of the first, second, third, fourth, and fifth degree, misdemeanors of the first, second, third, and fourth degree, minor misdemeanors, and offenses not specifically classified.

(B) Aggravated murder when the indictment or the count in the indictment charging aggravated murder contains one or more specifications of aggravating circumstances listed in division (A) of section 2929.04 of Revised Code, and any other offense for which death may be imposed as a penalty, is a capital offense.

(C) Aggravated murder and murder are felonies.

(D) Regardless of the penalty that may be imposed, any offense specifically classified as a felony is a felony, and any offense specifically classified as a misdemeanor is a misdemeanor.

(E) Any offense not specifically classified is a felony if imprisonment for more than one year may be imposed as a penalty.

(F) Any offense not specifically classified is a misdemeanor if imprisonment for not more than one year may be imposed as a penalty.

(G) Any offense not specifically classified is a minor misdemeanor if the only penalty that may be imposed is one of the following:

(1) For an offense committed prior to January 1, 2004, a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars;

(2) For an offense committed on or after January 1, 2004, a fine not exceeding one hundred fifty dollars, community service under division (D) of section 2929.27 of the Revised Code, or a financial sanction other than a fine under section 2929.28 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 2903. Homicide and Assault

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Assault

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2903.11 Felonious assault

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly do either of the following:

(1) Cause serious physical harm to another or to another’s unborn;

(2) Cause or attempt to cause physical harm to another or to another’s unborn by means of a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance.

(B) No person, with knowledge that the person has tested positive as a carrier of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1) Engage in sexual conduct with another person without disclosing that knowledge to the other person prior to engaging in the sexual conduct;

(2) Engage in sexual conduct with a person whom the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe lacks the mental capacity to appreciate the significance of the knowledge that the offender has tested positive as a carrier of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome;

(3) Engage in sexual conduct with a person under eighteen years of age who is not the spouse of the offender.

(C) The prosecution of a person under this section does not preclude prosecution of that person under section 2907.02 of the Revised Code.

(D)(1)(a) Whoever violates this section is guilty of felonious assault. Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (D)(1)(b) of this section, felonious assault is a felony of the second degree. If the victim of a violation of division (A) of this section is a peace officer or an investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, felonious assault is a felony of the first degree.

(b) Regardless of whether the felonious assault is a felony of the first or second degree under division (D)(1)(a) of this section, if the offender also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, except as otherwise provided in this division or unless a longer prison term is required under any other provision of law, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. If the victim of the offense is a peace officer or an investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, and if the victim suffered serious physical harm as a result of the commission of the offense, felonious assault is a felony of the first degree, and the court, pursuant to division (F) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the definite prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree in division (A)(1)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, except that if the violation is committed on or after the effective date of this amendment, the court shall impose as the minimum prison term for the offense a mandatory prison term that is one of the minimum terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree in division (A)(1)(a) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code.

(2) In addition to any other sanctions imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section for felonious assault committed in violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, if the offender also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in section 2941.1425 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term under division (B)(9) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code.

(3) If the victim of a felonious assault committed in violation of division (A) of this section is a child under ten years of age and if the offender also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in section 2941.1426 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, in addition to any other sanctions imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term pursuant to division (B)(10) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code.

(4) In addition to any other sanctions imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section for felonious assault committed in violation of division (A)(2) of this section, if the deadly weapon used in the commission of the violation is a motor vehicle, the court shall impose upon the offender a class two suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege as specified in division (A)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(E) As used in this section:

(1) “Deadly weapon” and “dangerous ordnance” have the same meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.

(2) “Motor vehicle” has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) “Peace officer” has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Sexual conduct” has the same meaning as in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, except that, as used in this section, it does not include the insertion of an instrument, apparatus, or other object that is not a part of the body into the vaginal or anal opening of another, unless the offender knew at the time of the insertion that the instrument, apparatus, or other object carried the offender’s bodily fluid.

(5) “Investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation” means an investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation who is commissioned by the superintendent of the bureau as a special agent for the purpose of assisting law enforcement officers or providing emergency assistance to peace officers pursuant to authority granted under section 109.541 of the Revised Code.

(6) “Investigator” has the same meaning as in section 109.541 of the Revised Code.

(F) The provisions of division (D)(2) of this section and of division (F)(20) of section 2929.13, divisions (B)(9) and (C)(6) of section 2929.14, and section 2941.1425 of the Revised Code shall be known as “Judy’s Law.”

2903.13 Assault

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly cause or attempt to cause physical harm to another or to another’s unborn.
 

(B) No person shall recklessly cause serious physical harm to another or to another’s unborn.
 

(C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of assault, and the court shall sentence the offender as provided in this division and divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of this section, assault is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
 

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the offense is committed by a caretaker against a person with a functional impairment under the caretaker’s care, assault is a felony of the fourth degree. If the offense is committed by a caretaker against a person with a functional impairment under the caretaker’s care, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or section 2903.11 or 2903.16 of the Revised Code, and if in relation to the previous conviction the offender was a caretaker and the victim was a person with a functional impairment under the offender’s care, assault is a felony of the third degree.
 

(3) If the offense occurs in or on the grounds of a state correctional institution or an institution of the department of youth services, the victim of the offense is an employee of the department of rehabilitation and correction or the department of youth services, and the offense is committed by a person incarcerated in the state correctional institution or by a person institutionalized in the department of youth services institution pursuant to a commitment to the department of youth services, assault is a felony of the third degree.
 

(4) If the offense is committed in any of the following circumstances, assault is a felony of the fifth degree:
 

(a) The offense occurs in or on the grounds of a local correctional facility, the victim of the offense is an employee of the local correctional facility or a probation department or is on the premises of the facility for business purposes or as a visitor, and the offense is committed by a person who is under custody in the facility subsequent to the person’s arrest for any crime or delinquent act, subsequent to the person’s being charged with or convicted of any crime, or subsequent to the person’s being alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child.
 

(b) The offense occurs off the grounds of a state correctional institution and off the grounds of an institution of the department of youth services, the victim of the offense is an employee of the department of rehabilitation and correction, the department of youth services, or a probation department, the offense occurs during the employee’s official work hours and while the employee is engaged in official work responsibilities, and the offense is committed by a person incarcerated in a state correctional institution or institutionalized in the department of youth services who temporarily is outside of the institution for any purpose, by a parolee, by an offender under transitional control, under a community control sanction, or on an escorted visit, by a person under post-release control, or by an offender under any other type of supervision by a government agency.
 

(c) The offense occurs off the grounds of a local correctional facility, the victim of the offense is an employee of the local correctional facility or a probation department, the offense occurs during the employee’s official work hours and while the employee is engaged in official work responsibilities, and the offense is committed by a person who is under custody in the facility subsequent to the person’s arrest for any crime or delinquent act, subsequent to the person being charged with or convicted of any crime, or subsequent to the person being alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child and who temporarily is outside of the facility for any purpose or by a parolee, by an offender under transitional control, under a community control sanction, or on an escorted visit, by a person under post-release control, or by an offender under any other type of supervision by a government agency.
 

(d) The victim of the offense is a school teacher or administrator or a school bus operator, and the offense occurs in a school, on school premises, in a school building, on a school bus, or while the victim is outside of school premises or a school bus and is engaged in duties or official responsibilities associated with the victim’s employment or position as a school teacher or administrator or a school bus operator, including, but not limited to, driving, accompanying, or chaperoning students at or on class or field trips, athletic events, or other school extracurricular activities or functions outside of school premises.
 

(5) If the assault is committed in any of the following circumstances, assault is a felony of the fourth degree:
 

(a) The victim of the offense is a peace officer or an investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, a firefighter, or a person performing emergency medical service, while in the performance of the officer’s, investigator’s, firefighter’s, or person’s official duties.
 

(b) The victim of the offense is an emergency service responder, the offender knows or reasonably should know that the victim is an emergency service responder, and it is the offender’s specific purpose to commit the offense against an emergency service responder.
 

(c) The victim of the offense is a family or household member or co-worker of a person who is an emergency service responder, the offender knows or reasonably should know that the victim is a family or household member or co-worker of an emergency service responder, and it is the offender’s specific purpose to commit the offense against a family or household member or co-worker of an emergency service responder.
 

(6) If the offense is a felony of the fourth degree under division (C)(5)(a) of this section, if the victim of the offense is a peace officer or an investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, and if the victim suffered serious physical harm as a result of the commission of the offense, the court, pursuant to division (F) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the fourth degree that is at least twelve months in duration.
 

(7) If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee of a public children services agency or a private child placing agency and the offense relates to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, assault is either a felony of the fifth degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior offense related to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, a felony of the fourth degree.
 

(8) If the victim of the offense is a health care professional of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security officer of a hospital whom the offender knows or has reasonable cause to know is a health care professional of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security officer of a hospital, if the victim is engaged in the performance of the victim’s duties, and if the hospital offers de-escalation or crisis intervention training for such professionals, workers, or officers, assault is one of the following:
 

(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(b) of this section, assault committed in the specified circumstances is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Notwithstanding the fine specified in division (A)(2)(a) of section 2929.28 of the Revised Code for a misdemeanor of the first degree, in sentencing the offender under this division and if the court decides to impose a fine, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more than five thousand dollars.
 

(b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more assault or homicide offenses committed against hospital personnel, assault committed in the specified circumstances is a felony of the fifth degree.
 

(9) If the victim of the offense is a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or court official or employee whom the offender knows or has reasonable cause to know is a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or court official or employee, and if the victim is engaged in the performance of the victim’s duties, assault is one of the following:
 

(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(9)(b) of this section, assault committed in the specified circumstances is a misdemeanor of the first degree. In sentencing the offender under this division, if the court decides to impose a fine, notwithstanding the fine specified in division (A)(2)(a) of section 2929.28 of the Revised Code for a misdemeanor of the first degree, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more than five thousand dollars.
 

(b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more assault or homicide offenses committed against justice system personnel, assault committed in the specified circumstances is a felony of the fifth degree.
 

(10) If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to assault when it is a misdemeanor also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory jail term as provided in division (F) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.
 

If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to assault when it is a felony also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6) of this section, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code.
 

(D) A prosecution for a violation of this section does not preclude a prosecution of a violation of any other section of the Revised Code. One or more acts, a series of acts, or a course of behavior that can be prosecuted under this section or any other section of the Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section, the other section of the Revised Code, or both sections. However, if an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of this section and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of section 2903.22 of the Revised Code based on the same conduct involving the same victim that was the basis of the violation of this section, the two offenses are allied offenses of similar import under section 2941.25 of the Revised Code.
 

(E) As used in this section:
 

(1) “Peace officer” has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(2) “Firefighter” means any person who is a firefighter as defined in section 3937.41 of the Revised Code and, for purposes of division (E)(21) of this section, also includes a member of a fire department as defined in section 742.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(3) “Emergency medical service” has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(4) “Local correctional facility” means a county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, a minimum security jail established under section 341.23 or 753.21 of the Revised Code, or another county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal facility used for the custody of persons arrested for any crime or delinquent act, persons charged with or convicted of any crime, or persons alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child.
 

(5) “Employee of a local correctional facility” means a person who is an employee of the political subdivision or of one or more of the affiliated political subdivisions that operates the local correctional facility and who operates or assists in the operation of the facility.
 

(6) “School teacher or administrator” means either of the following:
 

(a) A person who is employed in the public schools of the state under a contract described in section 3311.77 or 3319.08 of the Revised Code in a position in which the person is required to have a certificate issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.311 of the Revised Code.
 

(b) A person who is employed by a nonpublic school for which the director of education and workforce prescribes minimum standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code and who is certificated in accordance with section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.
 

(7) “Community control sanction” has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(8) “Escorted visit” means an escorted visit granted under section 2967.27 of the Revised Code.
 

(9) “Post-release control” and “transitional control” have the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(10) “Investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation” has the same meaning as in section 2903.11 of the Revised Code.
 

(11) “Health care professional” and “health care worker” have the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.
 

(12) “Assault or homicide offense committed against hospital personnel” means a violation of this section or of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, or 2903.14 of the Revised Code committed in circumstances in which all of the following apply:
 

(a) The victim of the offense was a health care professional of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security officer of a hospital.
 

(b) The offender knew or had reasonable cause to know that the victim was a health care professional of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security officer of a hospital.
 

(c) The victim was engaged in the performance of the victim’s duties.
 

(d) The hospital offered de-escalation or crisis intervention training for such professionals, workers, or officers.
 

(13) “De-escalation or crisis intervention training” means de-escalation or crisis intervention training for health care professionals of a hospital, health care workers of a hospital, and security officers of a hospital to facilitate interaction with patients, members of a patient’s family, and visitors, including those with mental impairments.
 

(14) “Assault or homicide offense committed against justice system personnel” means a violation of this section or of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, or 2903.14 of the Revised Code committed in circumstances in which the victim of the offense was a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or court official or employee whom the offender knew or had reasonable cause to know was a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or court official or employee, and the victim was engaged in the performance of the victim’s duties.
 

(15) “Court official or employee” means any official or employee of a court created under the constitution or statutes of this state or of a United States court located in this state.
 

(16) “Judge” means a judge of a court created under the constitution or statutes of this state or of a United States court located in this state.
 

(17) “Magistrate” means an individual who is appointed by a court of record of this state and who has the powers and may perform the functions specified in Civil Rule 53, Criminal Rule 19, or Juvenile Rule 40, or an individual who is appointed by a United States court located in this state who has similar powers and functions.
 

(18) “Prosecutor” has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(19)(a) “Hospital” means, subject to division (E)(19)(b) of this section, an institution classified as a hospital under section 3701.01 of the Revised Code in which are provided to patients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, psychiatric, or rehabilitation care or a hospital operated by a health maintenance organization.
 

(b) “Hospital” does not include any of the following:
 

(i) A facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care facility operated by the department of mental health and addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities, a health maintenance organization that does not operate a hospital, or the office of any private, licensed health care professional, whether organized for individual or group practice;
 

(ii) An institution for the sick that is operated exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of the “Internal Revenue Code of 1986,” 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four-hour nursing care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.
 

(20) “Health maintenance organization” has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(21) “Emergency service responder” means any law enforcement officer, first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, firefighter, or volunteer firefighter.
 

(22) “Family or household member” means any of the following:
 

(a) Any of the following who is residing or has resided with a person who is employed as an emergency service responder:
 

(i) A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of a person who is employed as an emergency service responder;
 

(ii) A parent, a foster parent, or a child of a person who is employed as an emergency service responder, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a person who is employed as an emergency service responder;
 

(iii) A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of a person who is employed as an emergency service responder, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of a person who is employed as an emergency service responder.
 

(b) The natural parent of any child of whom a person who is employed as an emergency service responder is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.
 

(23) “First responder,” “emergency medical technician-basic,” “emergency medical technician-intermediate,” and “emergency medical technician-paramedic” have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(24) “Volunteer firefighter” has the same meaning as in section 146.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(25) “Person living as a spouse” means a person who is living or has lived with a person who is employed as an emergency service responder in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with a person who is employed as an emergency service responder, or who otherwise has cohabited with a person who is employed as an emergency service responder within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.
 

(26) “Co-worker” means a person who is employed by the organization or entity that is served by a person who is employed as an emergency service responder.

2903.14 Negligent assault

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall negligently, by means of a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, cause physical harm to another or to another’s unborn.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of negligent assault, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

Menacing; Stalking

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2903.21 Aggravated menacing

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly cause another to believe that the offender will cause serious physical harm to the person or property of the other person, the other person’s unborn, or a member of the other person’s immediate family. In addition to any other basis for the other person’s belief that the offender will cause serious physical harm to the person or property of the other person, the other person’s unborn, or a member of the other person’s immediate family, the other person’s belief may be based on words or conduct of the offender that are directed at or identify a corporation, association, or other organization that employs the other person or to which the other person belongs.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of aggravated menacing. Except as otherwise provided in this division, aggravated menacing is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee of a public children services agency or a private child placing agency and the offense relates to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, aggravated menacing is a felony of the fifth degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior offense related to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, a felony of the fourth degree.

(C) As used in this section, “organization” includes an entity that is a governmental employer.

 

2903.211 Menacing by stalking

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1) No person by engaging in a pattern of conduct shall knowingly cause another person to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or a family or household member of the other person or cause mental distress to the other person or a family or household member of the other person. In addition to any other basis for the other person’s belief that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or the other person’s family or household member or mental distress to the other person or the other person’s family or household member, the other person’s belief or mental distress may be based on words or conduct of the offender that are directed at or identify a corporation, association, or other organization that employs the other person or to which the other person belongs.

(2) No person, through the use of any form of written communication or any electronic method of remotely transferring information, including, but not limited to, any computer, computer network, computer program, computer system, or telecommunication device shall post a message or use any intentionally written or verbal graphic gesture with purpose to do either of the following:

(a) Violate division (A)(1) of this section;

(b) Urge or incite another to commit a violation of division (A)(1) of this section.

(3) No person, with a sexual motivation, shall violate division (A)(1) or (2) of this section.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of menacing by stalking.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section, menacing by stalking is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2) Menacing by stalking is a felony of the fourth degree if any of the following applies:

(a) The offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or a violation of section 2911.211 of the Revised Code.

(b) In committing the offense under division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, the offender made a threat of physical harm to or against the victim, or as a result of an offense committed under division (A)(2) or (3) of this section, a third person induced by the offender’s posted message made a threat of physical harm to or against the victim.

(c) In committing the offense under division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, the offender trespassed on the land or premises where the victim lives, is employed, or attends school, or as a result of an offense committed under division (A)(2) or (3) of this section, a third person induced by the offender’s posted message trespassed on the land or premises where the victim lives, is employed, or attends school.

(d) The victim of the offense is a minor.

(e) The offender has a history of violence toward the victim or any other person or a history of other violent acts toward the victim or any other person.

(f) While committing the offense under division (A)(1) of this section or a violation of division (A)(3) of this section based on conduct in violation of division (A)(1) of this section, the offender had a deadly weapon on or about the offender’s person or under the offender’s control. Division (B)(2)(f) of this section does not apply in determining the penalty for a violation of division (A)(2) of this section or a violation of division (A)(3) of this section based on conduct in violation of division (A)(2) of this section.

(g) At the time of the commission of the offense, the offender was the subject of a protection order issued under section 2903.213or 2903.214 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the person to be protected under the order is the victim of the offense or another person.

(h) In committing the offense under division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, the offender caused serious physical harm to the premises at which the victim resides, to the real property on which that premises is located, or to any personal property located on that premises, or, as a result of an offense committed under division (A)(2) of this section or an offense committed under division (A)(3) of this section based on a violation of division (A)(2) of this section, a third person induced by the offender’s posted message caused serious physical harm to that premises, that real property, or any personal property on that premises.

(i) Prior to committing the offense, the offender had been determined to represent a substantial risk of physical harm to others as manifested by evidence of then-recent homicidal or other violent behavior, evidence of then-recent threats that placed another in reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or other evidence of then-present dangerousness.

(3) If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee of a public children services agency or a private child placing agency and the offense relates to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, menacing by stalking is either a felony of the fifth degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior offense related to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, a felony of the fourth degree.

(C) Section 2919.271 of the Revised Code applies in relation to a defendant charged with a violation of this section.

(D) As used in this section:

(1) “Pattern of conduct” means two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents, or two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents, directed at one or more persons employed by or belonging to the same corporation, association, or other organization. Actions or incidents that prevent, obstruct, or delay the performance by a public official, firefighter, rescuer, emergency medical services person, or emergency facility person of any authorized act within the public official’s, firefighter’s, rescuer’s, emergency medical services person’s, or emergency facility person’s official capacity, or the posting of messages, use of intentionally written or verbal graphic gestures, or receipt of information or data through the use of any form of written communication or an electronic method of remotely transferring information, including, but not limited to, a computer, computer network, computer program, computer system, or telecommunications device, may constitute a “pattern of conduct.”

(2) “Mental distress” means any of the following:

(a) Any mental illness or condition that involves some temporary substantial incapacity;

(b) Any mental illness or condition that would normally require psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services, whether or not any person requested or received psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services.

(3) “Emergency medical services person” is the singular of “emergency medical services personnel” as defined in section 2133.21 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Emergency facility person” is the singular of “emergency facility personnel” as defined in section 2909.04 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Public official” has the same meaning as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) “Computer,” “computer network,” “computer program,” “computer system,” and “telecommunications device” have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) “Post a message” means transferring, sending, posting, publishing, disseminating, or otherwise communicating, or attempting to transfer, send, post, publish, disseminate, or otherwise communicate, any message or information, whether truthful or untruthful, about an individual, and whether done under one’s own name, under the name of another, or while impersonating another.

(8) “Third person” means, in relation to conduct as described in division (A)(2) of this section, an individual who is neither the offender nor the victim of the conduct.

(9) “Sexual motivation” has the same meaning as in section 2971.01 of the Revised Code.

(10) “Organization” includes an entity that is a governmental employer.

(11) “Family or household member” means any of the following:

(a) Any of the following who is residing or has resided with the person against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(1) of this section is committed:

(i) A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the person;

(ii) A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the person, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the person;

(iii) A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the person, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the person.

(b) The natural parent of any child of whom the person against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(1) of this section is committed is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

(12) “Person living as a spouse” means a person who is living or has lived with the person against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(1) of this section is committed in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with that person, or who otherwise has cohabited with the person within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.

(E) The state does not need to prove in a prosecution under this section that a person requested or received psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services in order to show that the person was caused mental distress as described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section.

(F)(1) This section does not apply to a person solely because the person provided access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control, including having provided capabilities that are incidental to providing access or connection to or from the electronic method of remotely transferring the information, and that do not include the creation of the content of the material that is the subject of the access or connection. In addition, any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control shall not be liable for any action voluntarily taken in good faith to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that it believes is, or will be sent, in violation of this section.

(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not create an affirmative duty for any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that it believes is, or will be sent, in violation of this section except as otherwise provided by law.

(3) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who conspires with a person actively involved in the creation or knowing distribution of material in violation of this section or who knowingly advertises the availability of material of that nature.

2903.214 Protection orders and electronic monitoring; persons who may seek relief; ex parte

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section:

(1) “Court” means the court of common pleas of the county in which the person to be protected by the protection order resides.

(2) “Victim advocate” means a person who provides support and assistance for a person who files a petition under this section.

(3) “Family or household member” means any of the following:

(a) Any of the following who is residing with or has resided with the petitioner:

(i) A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the petitioner;

(ii) A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the petitioner, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the petitioner;

(iii) A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the petitioner, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the petitioner.

(b) The natural parent of any child of whom the petitioner is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

(4) “Person living as a spouse” means a person who is living or has lived with the petitioner in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with the petitioner, or who otherwise has cohabited with the petitioner within five years prior to the date of the alleged occurrence of the act in question.

(5) “Protection order issued by a court of another state” has the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.

(6) “Sexually oriented offense” has the same meaning as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) “Electronic monitoring” has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(8) “Companion animal” has the same meaning as in section 959.131 of the Revised Code.

(B) The court has jurisdiction over all proceedings under this section.

(C) A person may seek relief under this section for the person, or any parent or adult household member may seek relief under this section on behalf of any other family or household member, by filing a petition with the court. The petition shall contain or state all of the following:

(1) An allegation that the respondent is eighteen years of age or older and engaged in a violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code against the person to be protected by the protection order or committed a sexually oriented offense against the person to be protected by the protection order, including a description of the nature and extent of the violation;

(2) If the petitioner seeks relief in the form of electronic monitoring of the respondent, an allegation that at any time preceding the filing of the petition the respondent engaged in conduct that would cause a reasonable person to believe that the health, welfare, or safety of the person to be protected was at risk, a description of the nature and extent of that conduct, and an allegation that the respondent presents a continuing danger to the person to be protected;

(3) A request for relief under this section.

(D)(1) If a person who files a petition pursuant to this section requests an ex parte order, the court shall hold an ex parte hearing as soon as possible after the petition is filed, but not later than the next day that the court is in session after the petition is filed. The court, for good cause shown at the ex parte hearing, may enter any temporary orders, with or without bond, that the court finds necessary for the safety and protection of the person to be protected by the order. Immediate and present danger to the person to be protected by the protection order constitutes good cause for purposes of this section. Immediate and present danger includes, but is not limited to, situations in which the respondent has threatened the person to be protected by the protection order with bodily harm or in which the respondent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code or a sexually oriented offense against the person to be protected by the protection order.

(2)(a) If the court, after an ex parte hearing, issues a protection order described in division (E) of this section, the court shall schedule a full hearing for a date that is within ten court days after the ex parte hearing. The court shall give the respondent notice of, and an opportunity to be heard at, the full hearing. The court shall hold the full hearing on the date scheduled under this division unless the court grants a continuance of the hearing in accordance with this division. Under any of the following circumstances or for any of the following reasons, the court may grant a continuance of the full hearing to a reasonable time determined by the court:

(i) Prior to the date scheduled for the full hearing under this division, the respondent has not been served with the petition filed pursuant to this section and notice of the full hearing.

(ii) The parties consent to the continuance.

(iii) The continuance is needed to allow a party to obtain counsel.

(iv) The continuance is needed for other good cause.

(b) An ex parte order issued under this section does not expire because of a failure to serve notice of the full hearing upon the respondent before the date set for the full hearing under division (D)(2)(a) of this section or because the court grants a continuance under that division.

(3) If a person who files a petition pursuant to this section does not request an ex parte order, or if a person requests an ex parte order but the court does not issue an ex parte order after an ex parte hearing, the court shall proceed as in a normal civil action and grant a full hearing on the matter.

(E)(1)(a) After an ex parte or full hearing, the court may issue any protection order, with or without bond, that contains terms designed to ensure the safety and protection of the person to be protected by the protection order, including, but not limited to, a requirement that the respondent refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the petitioner or family or household member. If the court includes a requirement that the respondent refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the petitioner or family or household member in the order, it also shall include in the order provisions of the type described in division (E)(5) of this section. The court may include within a protection order issued under this section a term requiring that the respondent not remove, damage, hide, harm, or dispose of any companion animal owned or possessed by the person to be protected by the order, and may include within the order a term authorizing the person to be protected by the order to remove a companion animal owned by the person to be protected by the order from the possession of the respondent.

(b) After a full hearing, if the court considering a petition that includes an allegation of the type described in division (C)(2) of this section, or the court upon its own motion, finds upon clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner reasonably believed that the respondent’s conduct at any time preceding the filing of the petition endangered the health, welfare, or safety of the person to be protected and that the respondent presents a continuing danger to the person to be protected, the court may order that the respondent be electronically monitored for a period of time and under the terms and conditions that the court determines are appropriate. Electronic monitoring shall be in addition to any other relief granted to the petitioner.

(2)(a) Any protection order issued pursuant to this section shall be valid until a date certain but not later than five years from the date of its issuance.

(b) Any protection order issued pursuant to this section may be renewed in the same manner as the original order was issued.

(3) A court may not issue a protection order that requires a petitioner to do or to refrain from doing an act that the court may require a respondent to do or to refrain from doing under division (E)(1) of this section unless all of the following apply:

(a) The respondent files a separate petition for a protection order in accordance with this section.

(b) The petitioner is served with notice of the respondent’s petition at least forty-eight hours before the court holds a hearing with respect to the respondent’s petition, or the petitioner waives the right to receive this notice.

(c) If the petitioner has requested an ex parte order pursuant to division (D) of this section, the court does not delay any hearing required by that division beyond the time specified in that division in order to consolidate the hearing with a hearing on the petition filed by the respondent.

(d) After a full hearing at which the respondent presents evidence in support of the request for a protection order and the petitioner is afforded an opportunity to defend against that evidence, the court determines that the petitioner has committed a violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code against the person to be protected by the protection order issued pursuant to division (E)(3) of this section, has committed a sexually oriented offense against the person to be protected by the protection order issued pursuant to division (E)(3) of this section, or has violated a protection order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 of the Revised Code relative to the person to be protected by the protection order issued pursuant to division (E)(3) of this section.

(4) No protection order issued pursuant to this section shall in any manner affect title to any real property.

(5)(a) If the court issues a protection order under this section that includes a requirement that the alleged offender refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the petitioner or a family or household member, the order shall clearly state that the order cannot be waived or nullified by an invitation to the alleged offender from the complainant to enter the residence, school, business, or place of employment or by the alleged offender’s entry into one of those places otherwise upon the consent of the petitioner or family or household member.

(b) Division (E)(5)(a) of this section does not limit any discretion of a court to determine that an alleged offender charged with a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, with a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to that section, or with contempt of court, which charge is based on an alleged violation of a protection order issued under this section, did not commit the violation or was not in contempt of court.

(F)(1) The court shall cause the delivery of a copy of any protection order that is issued under this section to the petitioner, to the respondent, and to all law enforcement agencies that have jurisdiction to enforce the order. The court shall direct that a copy of the order be delivered to the respondent on the same day that the order is entered.

(2) Upon the issuance of a protection order under this section, the court shall provide the parties to the order with the following notice orally or by form:

“NOTICE

As a result of this order, it may be unlawful for you to possess or purchase a firearm, including a rifle, pistol, or revolver, or ammunition pursuant to federal law under 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) for the duration of this order. If you have any questions whether this law makes it illegal for you to possess or purchase a firearm or ammunition, you should consult an attorney.”

(3) All law enforcement agencies shall establish and maintain an index for the protection orders delivered to the agencies pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section. With respect to each order delivered, each agency shall note on the index the date and time that it received the order.

(4) Regardless of whether the petitioner has registered the protection order in the county in which the officer’s agency has jurisdiction pursuant to division (M) of this section, any officer of a law enforcement agency shall enforce a protection order issued pursuant to this section by any court in this state in accordance with the provisions of the order, including removing the respondent from the premises, if appropriate.

(G)(1) Any proceeding under this section shall be conducted in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure, except that a protection order may be obtained under this section with or without bond. An order issued under this section, other than an ex parte order, that grants a protection order, or that refuses to grant a protection order, is a final, appealable order. The remedies and procedures provided in this section are in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other available civil or criminal remedies.

(2) If as provided in division (G)(1) of this section an order issued under this section, other than an ex parte order, refuses to grant a protection order, the court, on its own motion, shall order that the ex parte order issued under this section and all of the records pertaining to that ex parte order be sealed after either of the following occurs:

(a) No party has exercised the right to appeal pursuant to Rule 4 of the Rules of Appellate Procedure.

(b) All appellate rights have been exhausted.

(H) The filing of proceedings under this section does not excuse a person from filing any report or giving any notice required by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code or by any other law.

(I) Any law enforcement agency that investigates an alleged violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code or an alleged commission of a sexually oriented offense shall provide information to the victim and the family or household members of the victim regarding the relief available under this section and section 2903.213 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) Subject to division (J)(2) of this section and regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved by a court of another county or by a court of another state, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge the petitioner any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing of a petition pursuant to this section, in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

(2) Regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved pursuant to this section, the court may assess costs against the respondent in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

(K)(1) A person who violates a protection order issued under this section is subject to the following sanctions:

(a) Criminal prosecution for a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, if the violation of the protection order constitutes a violation of that section;

(b) Punishment for contempt of court.

(2) The punishment of a person for contempt of court for violation of a protection order issued under this section does not bar criminal prosecution of the person for a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code. However, a person punished for contempt of court is entitled to credit for the punishment imposed upon conviction of a violation of that section, and a person convicted of a violation of that section shall not subsequently be punished for contempt of court arising out of the same activity.

(L) In all stages of a proceeding under this section, a petitioner may be accompanied by a victim advocate.

(M)(1) A petitioner who obtains a protection order under this section or a protection order under section 2903.213 of the Revised Code may provide notice of the issuance or approval of the order to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county other than the county in which the order is issued by registering that order in the other county pursuant to division (M)(2) of this section and filing a copy of the registered order with a law enforcement agency in the other county in accordance with that division. A person who obtains a protection order issued by a court of another state may provide notice of the issuance of the order to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county of this state by registering the order in that county pursuant to section 2919.272 of the Revised Code and filing a copy of the registered order with a law enforcement agency in that county.

(2) A petitioner may register a protection order issued pursuant to this section or section 2903.213 of the Revised Code in a county other than the county in which the court that issued the order is located in the following manner:

(a) The petitioner shall obtain a certified copy of the order from the clerk of the court that issued the order and present that certified copy to the clerk of the court of common pleas or the clerk of a municipal court or county court in the county in which the order is to be registered.

(b) Upon accepting the certified copy of the order for registration, the clerk of the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court shall place an endorsement of registration on the order and give the petitioner a copy of the order that bears that proof of registration.

(3) The clerk of each court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court shall maintain a registry of certified copies of protection orders that have been issued by courts in other counties pursuant to this section or section 2903.213 of the Revised Code and that have been registered with the clerk.

(N) If the court orders electronic monitoring of the respondent under this section, the court shall direct the sheriff’s office or any other appropriate law enforcement agency to install the electronic monitoring device and to monitor the respondent. Unless the court determines that the respondent is indigent, the court shall order the respondent to pay the cost of the installation and monitoring of the electronic monitoring device.

Chapter 2907. Sex Offenses

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Definitions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2907.01 Definitions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

As used in sections 2907.01 to 2907.38 and 2917.211 of the Revised Code:

(A) “Sexual conduct” means vaginal intercourse between a male and female; anal intercourse, fellatio, and cunnilingus between persons regardless of sex; and, without privilege to do so, the insertion, however slight, of any part of the body or any instrument, apparatus, or other object into the vaginal or anal opening of another. Penetration, however slight, is sufficient to complete vaginal or anal intercourse.

(B) “Sexual contact” means any touching of an erogenous zone of another, including without limitation the thigh, genitals, buttock, pubic region, or, if the person is a female, a breast, for the purpose of sexually arousing or gratifying either person.

(C) “Sexual activity” means sexual conduct or sexual contact, or both.

(D) “Prostitute” means a male or female who promiscuously engages in sexual activity for hire, regardless of whether the hire is paid to the prostitute or to another.

(E) “Harmful to juveniles” means that quality of any material or performance describing or representing nudity, sexual conduct, sexual excitement, or sado-masochistic abuse in any form to which all of the following apply:

(1) The material or performance, when considered as a whole, appeals to the prurient interest of juveniles in sex.

(2) The material or performance is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community as a whole with respect to what is suitable for juveniles.

(3) The material or performance, when considered as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, and scientific value for juveniles.

(F) When considered as a whole, and judged with reference to ordinary adults or, if it is designed for sexual deviates or other specially susceptible group, judged with reference to that group, any material or performance is “obscene” if any of the following apply:

(1) Its dominant appeal is to prurient interest;

(2) Its dominant tendency is to arouse lust by displaying or depicting sexual activity, masturbation, sexual excitement, or nudity in a way that tends to represent human beings as mere objects of sexual appetite;

(3) Its dominant tendency is to arouse lust by displaying or depicting bestiality or extreme or bizarre violence, cruelty, or brutality;

(4) Its dominant tendency is to appeal to scatological interest by displaying or depicting human bodily functions of elimination in a way that inspires disgust or revulsion in persons with ordinary sensibilities, without serving any genuine scientific, educational, sociological, moral, or artistic purpose;

(5) It contains a series of displays or descriptions of sexual activity, masturbation, sexual excitement, nudity, bestiality, extreme or bizarre violence, cruelty, or brutality, or human bodily functions of elimination, the cumulative effect of which is a dominant tendency to appeal to prurient or scatological interest, when the appeal to such an interest is primarily for its own sake or for commercial exploitation, rather than primarily for a genuine scientific, educational, sociological, moral, or artistic purpose.

(G) “Sexual excitement” means the condition of human male or female genitals when in a state of sexual stimulation or arousal.

(H) “Nudity” means the showing, representation, or depiction of human male or female genitals, pubic area, or buttocks with less than a full, opaque covering, or of a female breast with less than a full, opaque covering of any portion thereof below the top of the nipple, or of covered male genitals in a discernibly turgid state.

(I) “Juvenile” means an unmarried person under the age of eighteen.

(J) “Material” means any book, magazine, newspaper, pamphlet, poster, print, picture, figure, image, description, motion picture film, phonographic record, or tape, or other tangible thing capable of arousing interest through sight, sound, or touch and includes an image or text appearing on a computer monitor, television screen, liquid crystal display, or similar display device or an image or text recorded on a computer hard disk, computer floppy disk, compact disk, magnetic tape, or similar data storage device.

(K) “Performance” means any motion picture, preview, trailer, play, show, skit, dance, or other exhibition performed before an audience.

(L) “Spouse” means a person married to an offender at the time of an alleged offense, except that such person shall not be considered the spouse when any of the following apply:

(1) When the parties have entered into a written separation agreement authorized by section 3103.06 of the Revised Code;

(2) During the pendency of an action between the parties for annulment, divorce, dissolution of marriage, or legal separation;

(3) In the case of an action for legal separation, after the effective date of the judgment for legal separation.

(M) “Minor” means a person under the age of eighteen.

(N) “Mental health client or patient” has the same meaning as in section 2305.51 of the Revised Code.

(O) “Mental health professional” has the same meaning as in section 2305.115 of the Revised Code.

(P) “Sado-masochistic abuse” means flagellation or torture by or upon a person or the condition of being fettered, bound, or otherwise physically restrained.

(Q) “Place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy” means a place where a reasonable person would believe that the person could fully disrobe in private.

(R) “Private area” means the genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or female breast below the top of the areola, where nude or covered by an undergarment.

Sexual Assaults

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2907.02 Rape; evidence; marriage or cohabitation not defenses to rape charges

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1) No person shall engage in sexual conduct with another when any of the following applies:
 

(a) For the purpose of preventing resistance, the offender substantially impairs the other person’s judgment or control by administering any drug, intoxicant, or controlled substance to the other person surreptitiously or by force, threat of force, or deception.
 

(b) The other person is less than thirteen years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of the other person.
 

(c) The other person’s ability to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age, and the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the other person’s ability to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age.
 

(2) No person shall engage in sexual conduct with another when the offender purposely compels the other person to submit by force or threat of force.
 

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of rape, a felony of the first degree. If the offender under division (A)(1)(a) of this section substantially impairs the other person’s judgment or control by administering any controlled substance, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, to the other person surreptitiously or by force, threat of force, or deception, the prison term imposed upon the offender shall be one of the definite prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree in division (A)(1)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code that is not less than five years, except that if the violation is committed on or after March 22, 2019, the court shall impose as the minimum prison term for the offense a mandatory prison term that is one of the minimum terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree in division (A)(1)(a) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code that is not less than five years. Except as otherwise provided in this division, notwithstanding sections 2929.11 to 2929.14 of the Revised Code, an offender under division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be sentenced to a prison term or term of life imprisonment pursuant to section 2971.03 of the Revised Code. If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A)(1)(b) of this section, if the offender was less than sixteen years of age at the time the offender committed the violation of that division, and if the offender during or immediately after the commission of the offense did not cause serious physical harm to the victim, the victim was ten years of age or older at the time of the commission of the violation, and the offender has not previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or a substantially similar existing or former law of this state, another state, or the United States, the court shall not sentence the offender to a prison term or term of life imprisonment pursuant to section 2971.03 of the Revised Code, and instead the court shall sentence the offender as otherwise provided in this division. If an offender under division (A)(1)(b) of this section previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to violating division (A)(1)(b) of this section or to violating an existing or former law of this state, another state, or the United States that is substantially similar to division (A)(1)(b) of this section, if the offender during or immediately after the commission of the offense caused serious physical harm to the victim, or if the victim under division (A)(1)(b) of this section is less than ten years of age, in lieu of sentencing the offender to a prison term or term of life imprisonment pursuant to section 2971.03 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in this division, the court may impose upon the offender a term of life without parole. If the court imposes a term of life without parole pursuant to this division, division (F) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code applies, and the offender automatically is classified a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender, as described in that division. A court shall not impose a term of life without parole on an offender for rape if the offender was under eighteen years of age at the time of the offense.
 

(C) A victim need not prove physical resistance to the offender in prosecutions under this section.
 

(D) Evidence of specific instances of the victim’s sexual activity, opinion evidence of the victim’s sexual activity, and reputation evidence of the victim’s sexual activity shall not be admitted under this section unless it involves evidence of the origin of semen, pregnancy, sexually transmitted disease or infection, or the victim’s past sexual activity with the offender, and only to the extent that the court finds that the evidence is material to a fact at issue in the case and that its inflammatory or prejudicial nature does not outweigh its probative value.
 

Evidence of specific instances of the defendant’s sexual activity, opinion evidence of the defendant’s sexual activity, and reputation evidence of the defendant’s sexual activity shall not be admitted under this section unless it involves evidence of the origin of semen, pregnancy, sexually transmitted disease or infection, the defendant’s past sexual activity with the victim, or is admissible against the defendant under section 2945.59 of the Revised Code, and only to the extent that the court finds that the evidence is material to a fact at issue in the case and that its inflammatory or prejudicial nature does not outweigh its probative value.
 

(E) Prior to taking testimony or receiving evidence of any sexual activity of the victim or the defendant in a proceeding under this section, the court shall resolve the admissibility of the proposed evidence in a hearing in chambers, which shall be held at or before preliminary hearing and not less than three days before trial, or for good cause shown during the trial.
 

(F) Upon approval by the court, the victim may be represented by counsel in any hearing in chambers or other proceeding to resolve the admissibility of evidence. If the victim is indigent or otherwise is unable to obtain the services of counsel, the court, upon request, may appoint counsel to represent the victim without cost to the victim.
 

(G) It is not a defense to a charge under division (A)(2) of this section that the offender and the victim were married or were cohabiting at the time of the commission of the offense.

2907.03 Sexual battery

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall engage in sexual conduct with another when any of the following apply:
 

(1) The offender knowingly coerces the other person to submit by any means that would prevent resistance by a person of ordinary resolution.
 

(2) The offender knows that the other person’s ability to appraise the nature of or control the other person’s own conduct is substantially impaired.
 

(3) The offender knows that the other person submits because the other person is unaware that the act is being committed.
 

(4) The offender knows that the other person submits because the other person mistakenly identifies the offender as the other person’s spouse.
 

(5) The offender is the other person’s natural or adoptive parent, or a stepparent, or guardian, custodian, or person in loco parentis of the other person.
 

(6) The other person is in custody of law or a patient in a hospital or other institution, and the offender has supervisory or disciplinary authority over the other person.
 

(7) The offender is a teacher, administrator, coach, or other person in authority employed by or serving in a school for which the director of education and workforce prescribes minimum standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, the other person is enrolled in or attends that school, and the offender is not enrolled in and does not attend that school.
 

(8) The other person is a minor, the offender is a teacher, administrator, coach, or other person in authority employed by or serving in an institution of higher education, and the other person is enrolled in or attends that institution.
 

(9) The other person is a minor, and the offender is the other person’s athletic or other type of coach, is the other person’s instructor, is the leader of a scouting troop of which the other person is a member, or is a person with temporary or occasional disciplinary control over the other person.
 

(10) The offender is a mental health professional, the other person is a mental health client or patient of the offender, and the offender induces the other person to submit by falsely representing to the other person that the sexual conduct is necessary for mental health treatment purposes.
 

(11) The other person is confined in a detention facility, and the offender is an employee of that detention facility.
 

(12) The other person is a minor, the offender is a cleric, and the other person is a member of, or attends, the church or congregation served by the cleric.
 

(13) The other person is a minor, the offender is a peace officer, and the offender is more than two years older than the other person.
 

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of sexual battery. Except as otherwise provided in this division, sexual battery is a felony of the third degree. If the other person is less than thirteen years of age, sexual battery is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose upon the offender a mandatory prison term equal to one of the definite prison terms prescribed in division (A)(2)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the second degree, except that if the violation is committed on or after March 22, 2019, the court shall impose as the minimum prison term for the offense a mandatory prison term that is one of the minimum terms prescribed in division (A)(2)(a) of that section for a felony of the second degree.
 

(C) As used in this section:
 

(1) “Cleric” has the same meaning as in section 2317.02 of the Revised Code.
 

(2) “Detention facility” has the same meaning as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(3) “Institution of higher education” means a state institution of higher education defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, a private nonprofit college or university located in this state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the chancellor of higher education pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, or a school certified under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code.
 

(4) “Peace officer” has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

2907.04 Unlawful sexual conduct with a minor

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person who is eighteen years of age or older shall engage in sexual conduct with another when the offender knows the other person is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age, or the offender is reckless in that regard.
 

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful sexual conduct with a minor.
 

(1) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a felony of the fourth degree.
 

(2) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(4) of this section, if the offender is less than four years older than the other person, unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
 

(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(4) of this section, if the offender is ten or more years older than the other person, unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a felony of the third degree.
 

(4) If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, or 2907.04 of the Revised Code or a violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a felony of the second degree.

2907.05 Gross sexual imposition

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall have sexual contact with another; cause another to have sexual contact with the offender; or cause two or more other persons to have sexual contact when any of the following applies:
 

(1) The offender purposely compels the other person, or one of the other persons, to submit by force or threat of force.
 

(2) For the purpose of preventing resistance, the offender substantially impairs the judgment or control of the other person or of one of the other persons by administering any drug, intoxicant, or controlled substance to the other person surreptitiously or by force, threat of force, or deception.
 

(3) The offender knows that the judgment or control of the other person or of one of the other persons is substantially impaired as a result of the influence of any drug or intoxicant administered to the other person with the other person’s consent for the purpose of any kind of medical or dental examination, treatment, or surgery.
 

(4) The other person, or one of the other persons, is less than thirteen years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of that person.
 

(5) The ability of the other person to resist or consent or the ability of one of the other persons to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age, and the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the ability to resist or consent of the other person or of one of the other persons is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age.
 

(B) No person shall knowingly touch the genitalia of another, when the touching is not through clothing, the other person is less than twelve years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of that person, and the touching is done with an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person.
 

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of gross sexual imposition.
 

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, gross sexual imposition committed in violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (5) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree. If the offender under division (A)(2) of this section substantially impairs the judgment or control of the other person or one of the other persons by administering any controlled substance, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, to the person surreptitiously or by force, threat of force, or deception, gross sexual imposition committed in violation of division (A)(2) of this section is a felony of the third degree.
 

(2) Gross sexual imposition committed in violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of this section is a felony of the third degree. Except as otherwise provided in this division, for gross sexual imposition committed in violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of this section there is a presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense. The court shall impose on an offender convicted of gross sexual imposition in violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of this section a mandatory prison term, as described in division (C)(3) of this section, for a felony of the third degree if the offender previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section, rape, the former offense of felonious sexual penetration, or sexual battery, and the victim of the previous offense was less than thirteen years of age.
 

(3) A mandatory prison term required under division (C)(2) of this section shall be a definite term from the range of prison terms provided in division (A)(3)(a) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the third degree.
 

(D) A victim need not prove physical resistance to the offender in prosecutions under this section.
 

(E) Evidence of specific instances of the victim’s sexual activity, opinion evidence of the victim’s sexual activity, and reputation evidence of the victim’s sexual activity shall not be admitted under this section unless it involves evidence of the origin of semen, pregnancy, or sexually transmitted disease or infection, or the victim’s past sexual activity with the offender, and only to the extent that the court finds that the evidence is material to a fact at issue in the case and that its inflammatory or prejudicial nature does not outweigh its probative value.
 

Evidence of specific instances of the defendant’s sexual activity, opinion evidence of the defendant’s sexual activity, and reputation evidence of the defendant’s sexual activity shall not be admitted under this section unless it involves evidence of the origin of semen, pregnancy, or sexually transmitted disease or infection, the defendant’s past sexual activity with the victim, or is admissible against the defendant under section 2945.59 of the Revised Code, and only to the extent that the court finds that the evidence is material to a fact at issue in the case and that its inflammatory or prejudicial nature does not outweigh its probative value.
 

(F) Prior to taking testimony or receiving evidence of any sexual activity of the victim or the defendant in a proceeding under this section, the court shall resolve the admissibility of the proposed evidence in a hearing in chambers, which shall be held at or before preliminary hearing and not less than three days before trial, or for good cause shown during the trial.
 

(G) Upon approval by the court, the victim may be represented by counsel in any hearing in chambers or other proceeding to resolve the admissibility of evidence. If the victim is indigent or otherwise is unable to obtain the services of counsel, the court, upon request, may appoint counsel to represent the victim without cost to the victim.

2907.06 Sexual imposition

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall have sexual contact with another; cause another to have sexual contact with the offender; or cause two or more other persons to have sexual contact when any of the following applies:
 

(1) The offender knows that the sexual contact is offensive to the other person, or one of the other persons, or is reckless in that regard.
 

(2) The offender knows that the other person’s, or one of the other person’s, ability to appraise the nature of or control the offender’s or touching person’s conduct is substantially impaired.
 

(3) The offender knows that the other person, or one of the other persons, submits because of being unaware of the sexual contact.
 

(4) The other person, or one of the other persons, is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of such person, and the offender is at least eighteen years of age and four or more years older than such other person.
 

(5) The offender is a mental health professional, the other person or one of the other persons is a mental health client or patient of the offender, and the offender induces the other person who is the client or patient to submit by falsely representing to the other person who is the client or patient that the sexual contact is necessary for mental health treatment purposes.
 

(B) No person shall be convicted of a violation of this section solely upon the victim’s testimony unsupported by other evidence.
 

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of sexual imposition, a misdemeanor of the third degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or of section 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, or 2907.05, or former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of this section or section 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, or 2907.05, or former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, or of any combination of those sections, a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree and, notwithstanding the range of jail terms prescribed in section 2929.24 of the Revised Code, the court may impose on the offender a definite jail term of not more than one year.

2907.07 Importuning

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall solicit a person who is less than thirteen years of age to engage in sexual activity with the offender, whether or not the offender knows the age of such person.
 

(B)(1) No person shall solicit another, not the spouse of the offender, to engage in sexual conduct with the offender, when the offender is eighteen years of age or older and four or more years older than the other person, and the other person is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of the other person.
 

(2) No person shall solicit another to engage in sexual conduct with the offender, when the offender is eighteen years of age or older and four or more years older than the other person, the other person is sixteen or seventeen years of age and a victim of a violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code, and the offender knows or has reckless disregard of the age of the other person.
 

(C) No person shall solicit a person who is less than sixteen years of age to engage in sexual activity with the offender when the person who is less than sixteen years of age is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition.
 

(D) No person shall solicit another by means of a telecommunications device, as defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, to engage in sexual activity with the offender when the offender is eighteen years of age or older and either of the following applies:
 

(1) The other person is less than thirteen years of age, and the offender knows that the other person is less than thirteen years of age or is reckless in that regard.
 

(2) The other person is a law enforcement officer posing as a person who is less than thirteen years of age, and the offender believes that the other person is less than thirteen years of age or is reckless in that regard.
 

(E) No person shall solicit another by means of a telecommunications device, as defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, to engage in sexual activity with the offender when the offender is eighteen years of age or older and either of the following applies:
 

(1) The other person is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age, the offender knows that the other person is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age or is reckless in that regard, and the offender is four or more years older than the other person.
 

(2) The other person is a law enforcement officer posing as a person who is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age, the offender believes that the other person is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age or is reckless in that regard, and the offender is four or more years older than the age the law enforcement officer assumes in posing as the person who is thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age.
 

(F) Divisions (D) and (E) of this section apply to any solicitation that is contained in a transmission via a telecommunications device that either originates in this state or is received in this state.
 

(G)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of importuning.
 

(2) A violation of division (A), (C), or (D) of this section is a felony of the third degree on a first offense, and, notwithstanding division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, there is a presumption that a prison term shall be imposed as described in division (D) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the offender, in addition to soliciting the other person, arranged to meet the other person for the purpose of engaging in sexual activity, the court shall impose upon the offender as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed in division (A)(3)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the third degree.
 

If the offender previously has been convicted of a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented offense, a violation of division (A), (C), or (D) of this section is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose upon the offender as a mandatory prison term one of the definite prison terms prescribed in division (A)(2)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the second degree, except that if the violation is committed on or after March 22, 2019, the court shall impose as the minimum prison term for the offense a mandatory prison term that is one of the minimum terms prescribed in division (A)(2)(a) of that section for a felony of the second degree.
 

(3) A violation of division (B) or (E) of this section is a felony of the fifth degree on a first offense, and, notwithstanding division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, there is a presumption that a prison term shall be imposed as described in division (D) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. The court shall impose upon the offender as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed in section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the fifth degree if both of the following apply:
 

(a) Either of the following applies:
 

(i) The offender is ten or more years older than the other person.
 

(ii) Regarding a violation of division (E)(2) of this section, a law enforcement officer posed as a person thirteen years of age or older but less than sixteen years of age and the offender is ten or more years older than the officer claimed to be.
 

(b) In addition to soliciting the other person, the offender arranged to meet the other person for the purpose of engaging in sexual activity.
 

(4) If the offender previously has been convicted of a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented offense, a violation of division (B) or (E) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree, and the court shall impose upon the offender as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed in section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the fourth degree that is not less than twelve months in duration.

2907.08 Voyeurism

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person, for the purpose of sexually arousing or gratifying the person’s self, shall commit trespass or otherwise surreptitiously invade the privacy of another, to spy or eavesdrop upon another.

(B) No person shall knowingly commit trespass or otherwise secretly or surreptitiously videotape, film, photograph, broadcast, stream, or otherwise record another person, in a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, for the purpose of viewing the private areas of that person.

(C) No person shall knowingly commit trespass or otherwise secretly or surreptitiously videotape, film, photograph, broadcast, stream, or otherwise record a minor, in a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, for the purpose of viewing the private areas of the minor.

(D) No person shall secretly or surreptitiously videotape, film, photograph, or otherwise record another person above, under, or through the clothing being worn by that other person for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person.

(E)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of voyeurism.

(2) A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(3) A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(4) A violation of division (D) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(5) A violation of division (C) of this section is a felony of the fifth degree.

Prostitution

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2907.21 Compelling prostitution

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1) Compel another to engage in sexual activity for hire;

(2) Induce, procure, encourage, solicit, request, or otherwise facilitate either of the following:

(a) A minor to engage in sexual activity for hire, whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor;

(b) A person the offender believes to be a minor to engage in sexual activity for hire, whether or not the person is a minor.

(3)(a) Pay or agree to pay a minor, either directly or through the minor’s agent, so that the minor will engage in sexual activity, whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor;

(b) Pay or agree to pay a person the offender believes to be a minor, either directly or through the person’s agent, so that the person will engage in sexual activity, whether or not the person is a minor.

(4)(a) Pay a minor, either directly or through the minor’s agent, for the minor having engaged in sexual activity pursuant to a prior agreement, whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor;

(b) Pay a person the offender believes to be a minor, either directly or through the person’s agent, for the person having engaged in sexual activity pursuant to a prior agreement, whether or not the person is a minor.

(5)(a) Allow a minor to engage in sexual activity for hire if the person allowing the child to engage in sexual activity for hire is the parent, guardian, custodian, person having custody or control, or person in loco parentis of the minor;

(b) Allow a person the offender believes to be a minor to engage in sexual activity for hire if the person allowing the person to engage in sexual activity for hire is the parent, guardian, custodian, person having custody or control, or person in loco parentis of the person the offender believes to be a minor, whether or not the person is a minor.

(B) For a prosecution under division (A)(1) of this section, the element “compel” does not require that the compulsion be openly displayed or physically exerted. The element “compel” has been established if the state proves that the offender overcame the victim’s will by force, fear, duress, or intimidation, by furnishing or offering a controlled substance to the victim, or by manipulating the victim’s controlled substance addiction.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of compelling prostitution. Except as otherwise provided in this division, compelling prostitution is a felony of the third degree. If the offender commits a violation of division (A)(1) of this section and the person compelled to engage in sexual activity for hire in violation of that division is sixteen years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age, compelling prostitution is a felony of the second degree. If the offender commits a violation of division (A)(1) of this section and the person compelled to engage in sexual activity for hire in violation of that division is less than sixteen years of age, compelling prostitution is a felony of the first degree. If the offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.

2907.22 Promoting prostitution

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly:

(1) Establish, maintain, operate, manage, supervise, control, or have an interest in a brothel or any other enterprise a purpose of which is to facilitate engagement in sexual activity for hire;

(2) Supervise, manage, or control the activities of a prostitute in engaging in sexual activity for hire;

(3) Transport another, or cause another to be transported, in order to facilitate the other person’s engaging in sexual activity for hire;

(4) For the purpose of violating or facilitating a violation of this section, induce or procure another to engage in sexual activity for hire.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of promoting prostitution, and the court shall sentence the offender as follows:

(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) or (3) of this section, promoting prostitution is a felony of the fourth degree.

(2) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, promoting prostitution is a felony of the third degree if any of the following apply:

(a) A prostitute in the brothel involved in the offense, or the prostitute whose activities are supervised, managed, or controlled by the offender, or the person transported, induced, or procured by the offender to engage in sexual activity for hire, is a minor, whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor.

(b) The offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or a substantially similar violation of a law of another state or the United States.

(c) The offender also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of this section or two or more substantially similar violations of a law of another state or the United States, promoting prostitution is a felony of the second degree.

(4) If the offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.

(5) If the offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a firearm specification of the type described in section 2941.141, 2941.144, or 2941.145 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(1)(a) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code.

Obscenity

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2907.32 Pandering obscenity

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person, with knowledge of the character of the material or performance involved, shall do any of the following:

(1) Create, reproduce, or publish any obscene material, when the offender knows that the material is to be used for commercial exploitation or will be publicly disseminated or displayed, or when the offender is reckless in that regard;

(2) Promote or advertise for sale, delivery, or dissemination; sell, deliver, publicly disseminate, publicly display, exhibit, present, rent, or provide; or offer or agree to sell, deliver, publicly disseminate, publicly display, exhibit, present, rent, or provide, any obscene material;

(3) Create, direct, or produce an obscene performance, when the offender knows that it is to be used for commercial exploitation or will be publicly presented, or when the offender is reckless in that regard;

(4) Advertise or promote an obscene performance for presentation, or present or participate in presenting an obscene performance, when the performance is presented publicly, or when admission is charged;

(5) Buy, procure, possess, or control any obscene material with purpose to violate division (A)(2) or (4) of this section.

(B) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section, that the material or performance involved was disseminated or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, clergyman, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of pandering obscenity, a felony of the fifth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section or of section 2907.31 of the Revised Code, then pandering obscenity is a felony of the fourth degree.

2907.321 Pandering obscenity involving a minor

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person, with knowledge of the character of the material or performance involved, shall do any of the following:

(1) Create, reproduce, or publish any obscene material that has a minor or impaired person as one of its participants or portrayed observers;

(2) Promote or advertise for sale or dissemination; sell, deliver, disseminate, display, exhibit, present, rent, or provide; or offer or agree to sell, deliver, disseminate, display, exhibit, present, rent, or provide, any obscene material that has a minor or impaired person as one of its participants or portrayed observers;

(3) Create, direct, or produce an obscene performance that has a minor or impaired person as one of its participants;

(4) Advertise or promote for presentation, present, or participate in presenting an obscene performance that has a minor or impaired person as one of its participants;

(5) Buy, procure, possess, or control any obscene material, that has a minor or impaired person as one of its participants;

(6) Bring or cause to be brought into this state any obscene material that has a minor or impaired person as one of its participants or portrayed observers.

(B)(1) This section does not apply to any material or performance that is sold, disseminated, displayed, possessed, controlled, brought or caused to be brought into this state, or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance.

(2) Mistake of age is not a defense to a charge under this section.

(3) In a prosecution under this section, the trier of fact may infer that a person in the material or performance involved is a minor or impaired person if the material or performance, through its title, text, visual representation, or otherwise, represents or depicts the person as a minor or impaired person.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of pandering obscenity involving a minor or impaired person. If the offense involves a minor, a violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (6) of this section is a felony of the second degree. If the offense involves an impaired person, a violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (6) of this section is a felony of the third degree. A violation of division (A)(5) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or section 2907.322 or 2907.323 of the Revised Code, pandering obscenity involving a minor or impaired person in violation of division (A)(5) of this section is a felony of the third degree.

(D) As used in this section and sections 2907.322 and 2907.323 of the Revised Code, “impaired person” means a person whose ability to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age, and the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the other person’s ability to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age.

2907.322 Pandering sexually oriented matter involving a minor

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person, with knowledge of the character of the material or performance involved, shall do any of the following:

(1) Create, record, photograph, film, develop, reproduce, or publish any material that shows a minor or impaired person participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality;

(2) Advertise for sale or dissemination, sell, distribute, transport, disseminate, exhibit, or display any material that shows a minor or impaired person participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality;

(3) Create, direct, or produce a performance that shows a minor or impaired person participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality;

(4) Advertise for presentation, present, or participate in presenting a performance that shows a minor or impaired person participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality;

(5) Knowingly solicit, receive, purchase, exchange, possess, or control any material that shows a minor or impaired person participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality;

(6) Bring or cause to be brought into this state any material that shows a minor or impaired person participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality;

(7) Bring, cause to be brought, or finance the bringing of any minor or impaired person into or across this state with the intent that the minor or impaired person engage in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality in a performance or for the purpose of producing material containing a visual representation depicting the minor or impaired person engaged in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality.

(B)(1) This section does not apply to any material or performance that is sold, disseminated, displayed, possessed, controlled, brought or caused to be brought into this state, or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance.

(2) Mistake of age is not a defense to a charge under this section.

(3) In a prosecution under this section, the trier of fact may infer that a person in the material or performance involved is a minor or impaired person if the material or performance, through its title, text, visual representation, or otherwise, represents or depicts the person as a minor or impaired person.(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of pandering sexually oriented matter involving a minor or impaired person. If the offense involves a minor, a violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (6), or (7) of this section is a felony of the second degree. If the offense involves an impaired person, a violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (6), or (7) of this section is a felony of the third degree. Violation of division (A)(5) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or section 2907.321 or 2907.323 of the Revised Code, pandering sexually oriented matter involving a minor or impaired person in violation of division (A)(5) of this section is a felony of the third degree.

2907.323 Illegal use of a minor in nudity-oriented material or performance

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall do any of the following:

(1) Photograph any minor or impaired person who is not the person’s child or ward in a state of nudity, or create, direct, produce, or transfer any material or performance that shows the minor or impaired person in a state of nudity, unless both of the following apply:

(a) The material or performance is, or is to be, sold, disseminated, displayed, possessed, controlled, brought or caused to be brought into this state, or presented for a bona fide artistic, medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance;

(b) The minor’s or impaired person’s parents, guardian, or custodian consents in writing to the photographing of the minor or impaired person, to the use of the minor or impaired person in the material or performance, or to the transfer of the material and to the specific manner in which the material or performance is to be used.

(2) Consent to the photographing of the person’s child or ward who is a minor or impaired person, or photograph the person’s child or ward who is a minor or impaired person, in a state of nudity or consent to the use of the person’s child or ward who is a minor or impaired person in a state of nudity in any material or performance, or use or transfer a material or performance of that nature, unless the material or performance is sold, disseminated, displayed, possessed, controlled, brought or caused to be brought into this state, or presented for a bona fide artistic, medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance;

(3) Possess or view any material or performance that shows a minor or impaired person who is not the person’s child or ward in a state of nudity, unless one of the following applies:

(a) The material or performance is sold, disseminated, displayed, possessed, controlled, brought or caused to be brought into this state, or presented for a bona fide artistic, medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance.

(b) The person knows that the minor’s or impaired person’s parents, guardian, or custodian has consented in writing to the photographing or use of the minor or impaired person in a state of nudity and to the manner in which the material or performance is used or transferred.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal use of a minor or impaired person in a nudity-oriented material or performance. If the offense involves a minor, whoever violates division (A)(1) or (2) of this section is guilty of a felony of the second degree. If the offense involves an impaired person, whoever violates division (A)(1) or (2) of this section is guilty of a felony of the third degree. Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or section 2907.321 or 2907.322 of the Revised Code, illegal use of a minor or impaired person in a nudity-oriented material or performance in violation of division (A)(3) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree. If the offender who commits a violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of this section that involves a minor also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 2911. Robbery, Burglary, and Trespass

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Trespass

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2911.211 Aggravated trespass

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1) No person shall enter or remain on the land or premises of another with purpose to commit on that land or those premises a misdemeanor, the elements of which involve causing physical harm to another person or causing another person to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to that person.

(2) No person shall enter or remain on a critical infrastructure facility with purpose to destroy or tamper with the facility.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of aggravated trespass. Aggravated trespass in violation of division (A)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Aggravated trespass in violation of division (A)(2) of this section is a felony of the third degree.

(C) As used in this section, “critical infrastructure facility” has the same meaning as in section 2911.21 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 2913: Theft and Fraud

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Frauds

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2913.49 Identity Fraud

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section, “personal identifying information” includes, but is not limited to, the following: the name, address, telephone number, driver’s license, driver’s license number, commercial driver’s license, commercial driver’s license number, state identification card, state identification card number, social security card, social security number, birth certificate, place of employment, employee identification number, mother’s maiden name, demand deposit account number, savings account number, money market account number, mutual fund account number, other financial account number, personal identification number, password, or credit card number of a living or dead individual.

(B) No person, without the express or implied consent of the other person, shall use, obtain, or possess any personal identifying information of another person with intent to do either of the following:

(1) Hold the person out to be the other person;

(2) Represent the other person’s personal identifying information as the person’s own personal identifying information.

(C) No person shall create, obtain, possess, or use the personal identifying information of any person with the intent to aid or abet another person in violating division (B) of this section.

(D) No person, with intent to defraud, shall permit another person to use the person’s own personal identifying information.

(E) No person who is permitted to use another person’s personal identifying information as described in division (D) of this section shall use, obtain, or possess the other person’s personal identifying information with intent to defraud any person by doing any act identified in division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.

(F)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B) of this section that the person using the personal identifying information is acting in accordance with a legally recognized guardianship or conservatorship or as a trustee or fiduciary.

(2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this section that either of the following applies:

(a) The person or entity using, obtaining, possessing, or creating the personal identifying information or permitting it to be used is a law enforcement agency, authorized fraud personnel, or a representative of or attorney for a law enforcement agency or authorized fraud personnel and is using, obtaining, possessing, or creating the personal identifying information or permitting it to be used, with prior consent given as specified in this division, in a bona fide investigation, an information security evaluation, a pretext calling evaluation, or a similar matter. The prior consent required under this division shall be given by the person whose personal identifying information is being used, obtained, possessed, or created or is being permitted to be used or, if the person whose personal identifying information is being used, obtained, possessed, or created or is being permitted to be used is deceased, by that deceased person’s executor, or a member of that deceased person’s family, or that deceased person’s attorney. The prior consent required under this division may be given orally or in writing by the person whose personal identifying information is being used, obtained, possessed, or created or is being permitted to be used or that person’s executor, or family member, or attorney.

(b) The personal identifying information was obtained, possessed, used, created, or permitted to be used for a lawful purpose, provided that division (F)(2)(b) of this section does not apply if the person or entity using, obtaining, possessing, or creating the personal identifying information or permitting it to be used is a law enforcement agency, authorized fraud personnel, or a representative of or attorney for a law enforcement agency or authorized fraud personnel that is using, obtaining, possessing, or creating the personal identifying information or permitting it to be used in an investigation, an information security evaluation, a pretext calling evaluation, or similar matter.

(G) It is not a defense to a charge under this section that the person whose personal identifying information was obtained, possessed, used, created, or permitted to be used was deceased at the time of the offense.

(H)(1) If an offender commits a violation of division (B), (D), or (E) of this section and the violation occurs as part of a course of conduct involving other violations of division (B), (D), or (E) of this section or violations of, attempts to violate, conspiracies to violate, or complicity in violations of division (C) of this section or section 2913.02, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.42, 2913.43, or 2921.13 of the Revised Code, the court, in determining the degree of the offense pursuant to division (I) of this section, may aggregate all credit, property, or services obtained or sought to be obtained by the offender and all debts or other legal obligations avoided or sought to be avoided by the offender in the violations involved in that course of conduct. The course of conduct may involve one victim or more than one victim.

(2) If an offender commits a violation of division (C) of this section and the violation occurs as part of a course of conduct involving other violations of division (C) of this section or violations of, attempts to violate, conspiracies to violate, or complicity in violations of division (B), (D), or (E) of this section or section 2913.02, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.42, 2913.43, or 2921.13 of the Revised Code, the court, in determining the degree of the offense pursuant to division (I) of this section, may aggregate all credit, property, or services obtained or sought to be obtained by the person aided or abetted and all debts or other legal obligations avoided or sought to be avoided by the person aided or abetted in the violations involved in that course of conduct. The course of conduct may involve one victim or more than one victim.

(I)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of identity fraud.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (I)(3) of this section, identity fraud is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the credit, property, services, debt, or other legal obligation involved in the violation or course of conduct is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand five hundred dollars, except as otherwise provided in division (I)(3) of this section, identity fraud is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the credit, property, services, debt, or other legal obligation involved in the violation or course of conduct is seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, except as otherwise provided in division (I)(3) of this section, identity fraud is a felony of the third degree. If the value of the credit, property, services, debt, or other legal obligation involved in the violation or course of conduct is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, except as otherwise provided in division (I)(3) of this section, identity fraud is a felony of the second degree.

(3) If the victim of the offense is an elderly person, disabled adult, active duty service member, or spouse of an active duty service member, a violation of this section is identity fraud against a person in a protected class. Except as otherwise provided in this division, identity fraud against a person in a protected class is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the credit, property, services, debt, or other legal obligation involved in the violation or course of conduct is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand five hundred dollars, identity fraud against a person in a protected class is a felony of the third degree. If the value of the credit, property, services, debt, or other legal obligation involved in the violation or course of conduct is seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, identity fraud against a person in a protected class is a felony of the second degree. If the value of the credit, property, services, debt, or other legal obligation involved in the violation or course of conduct is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, identity fraud against a person in a protected class is a felony of the first degree. If the victim of the offense is an elderly person, in addition to any other penalty imposed for the offense, the offender shall be required to pay full restitution to the victim and to pay a fine of up to fifty thousand dollars. The clerk of court shall forward all fines collected under division (I)(3) of this section to the county department of job and family services to be used for the reporting and investigation of elder abuse, neglect, and exploitation or for the provision or arrangement of protective services under sections 5101.61 to 5101.71 of the Revised Code.

(J) In addition to the penalties described in division (I) of this section, anyone injured in person or property by a violation of division (B), (D), or (E) of this section who is the owner of the identifying information involved in that violation has a civil action against the offender pursuant to section 2307.60 of the Revised Code. That person may also bring a civil action to enjoin or restrain future acts that would constitute a violation of division (B), (D), or (E) of this section.

Chapter 2917. Offenses Against the Public Peace

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Disorderly Conduct

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2917.11 Disorderly conduct

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall recklessly cause inconvenience, annoyance, or alarm to another by doing any of the following:

(1) Engaging in fighting, in threatening harm to persons or property, or in violent or turbulent behavior;

(2) Making unreasonable noise or an offensively coarse utterance, gesture, or display or communicating unwarranted and grossly abusive language to any person;

(3) Insulting, taunting, or challenging another, under circumstances in which that conduct is likely to provoke a violent response;

(4) Hindering or preventing the movement of persons on a public street, road, highway, or right-of-way, or to, from, within, or upon public or private property, so as to interfere with the rights of others, and by any act that serves no lawful and reasonable purpose of the offender;

(5) Creating a condition that is physically offensive to persons or that presents a risk of physical harm to persons or property, by any act that serves no lawful and reasonable purpose of the offender.

(B) No person, while voluntarily intoxicated, shall do either of the following:

(1) In a public place or in the presence of two or more persons, engage in conduct likely to be offensive or to cause inconvenience, annoyance, or alarm to persons of ordinary sensibilities, which conduct the offender, if the offender were not intoxicated, should know is likely to have that effect on others;

(2) Engage in conduct or create a condition that presents a risk of physical harm to the offender or another, or to the property of another.

(C) Violation of any statute or ordinance of which an element is operating a motor vehicle, locomotive, watercraft, aircraft, or other vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or any drug of abuse, is not a violation of division (B) of this section.

(D) If a person appears to an ordinary observer to be intoxicated, it is probable cause to believe that person is voluntarily intoxicated for purposes of division (B) of this section.

(E)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of disorderly conduct.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (E)(3) and (4) of this section, disorderly conduct is a minor misdemeanor.

(3) Disorderly conduct is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if any of the following applies:

(a) The offender persists in disorderly conduct after reasonable warning or request to desist.

(b) The offense is committed in the vicinity of a school or in a school safety zone.

(c) The offense is committed in the presence of any law enforcement officer, firefighter, rescuer, medical person, emergency medical services person, or other authorized person who is engaged in the person’s duties at the scene of a fire, accident, disaster, riot, or emergency of any kind.

(d) The offense is committed in the presence of any emergency facility person who is engaged in the person’s duties in an emergency facility.

(4) If an offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of division (B) of this section, a violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(F) As used in this section:

(1) “Emergency medical services person” is the singular of “emergency medical services personnel” as defined in section 2133.21 of the Revised Code.

(2) “Emergency facility person” is the singular of “emergency facility personnel” as defined in section 2909.04 of the Revised Code.

(3) “Emergency facility” has the same meaning as in section 2909.04 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Committed in the vicinity of a school” has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

Harassment

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2917.21 Telecommunications harassment

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a telecommunication, or knowingly permit a telecommunication to be made from a telecommunications device under the person’s control, to another, if the caller does any of the following:

(1) Makes the telecommunication with purpose to harass, intimidate, or abuse any person at the premises to which the telecommunication is made, whether or not actual communication takes place between the caller and a recipient;

(2) Describes, suggests, requests, or proposes that the caller, the recipient of the telecommunication, or any other person engage in sexual activity, and the recipient or another person at the premises to which the telecommunication is made has requested, in a previous telecommunication or in the immediate telecommunication, that the caller not make a telecommunication to the recipient or to the premises to which the telecommunication is made;

(3) During the telecommunication, violates section 2903.21 of the Revised Code;

(4) Knowingly states to the recipient of the telecommunication that the caller intends to cause damage to or destroy public or private property, and the recipient, any member of the recipient’s family, or any other person who resides at the premises to which the telecommunication is made owns, leases, resides, or works in, will at the time of the destruction or damaging be near or in, has the responsibility of protecting, or insures the property that will be destroyed or damaged;

(5) Knowingly makes the telecommunication to the recipient of the telecommunication, to another person at the premises to which the telecommunication is made, or to those premises, and the recipient or another person at those premises previously has told the caller not to make a telecommunication to those premises or to any persons at those premises;

(6) Knowingly makes any comment, request, suggestion, or proposal to the recipient of the telecommunication that is threatening, intimidating, menacing, coercive, or obscene with the intent to abuse, threaten, or harass the recipient;

(7) Without a lawful business purpose, knowingly interrupts the telecommunication service of any person;

(8) Without a lawful business purpose, knowingly transmits to any person, regardless of whether the telecommunication is heard in its entirety, any file, document, or other communication that prevents that person from using the person’s telephone service or electronic communication device;

(9) Knowingly makes any false statement concerning the death, injury, illness, disfigurement, reputation, indecent conduct, or criminal conduct of the recipient of the telecommunication or family or household member of the recipient with purpose to abuse, threaten, intimidate, or harass the recipient;

(10) Knowingly incites another person through a telecommunication or other means to harass or participate in the harassment of a person;

(11) Knowingly alarms the recipient by making a telecommunication without a lawful purpose at an hour or hours known to be inconvenient to the recipient and in an offensive or repetitive manner.

(B)(1) No person shall make or cause to be made a telecommunication, or permit a telecommunication to be made from a telecommunications device under the person’s control, with purpose to abuse, threaten, or harass another person.

(2) No person shall knowingly post a text or audio statement or an image on an internet web site or web page for the purpose of abusing, threatening, or harassing another person.

(C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of telecommunications harassment.

(2) A violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), or (11) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on a first offense and a felony of the fifth degree on each subsequent offense.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3) of this section, a violation of division (A)(4) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on a first offense and a felony of the fifth degree on each subsequent offense. If a violation of division (A)(4) of this section results in economic harm of one thousand dollars or more but less than seven thousand five hundred dollars, telecommunications harassment is a felony of the fifth degree. If a violation of division (A)(4) of this section results in economic harm of seven thousand five hundred dollars or more but less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, telecommunications harassment is a felony of the fourth degree. If a violation of division (A)(4) of this section results in economic harm of one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, telecommunications harassment is a felony of the third degree.

(D) No cause of action may be asserted in any court of this state against any provider of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in section 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code, or information service, or against any officer, employee, or agent of a telecommunication service, interactive computer service as defined in section 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code, or information service, for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises out of the provider’s, officer’s, employee’s, or agent’s provision of information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of a court order that is issued in relation to the investigation or prosecution of an alleged violation of this section. A provider of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in section 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code, or information service, or an officer, employee, or agent of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in section 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code, or information service, is immune from any civil or criminal liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises out of the provider’s, officer’s, employee’s, or agent’s provision of information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of a court order that is issued in relation to the investigation or prosecution of an alleged violation of this section.

(E)(1) This section does not apply to a person solely because the person provided access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control, including having provided capabilities that are incidental to providing access or connection to or from the electronic method of remotely transferring the information, and that do not include the creation of the content of the material that is the subject of the access or connection. In addition, any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control shall not be liable for any action voluntarily taken in good faith to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that the person believes is, or will be sent, in violation of this section.

(2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not create an affirmative duty for any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that it believes is, or will be sent, in violation of this section except as otherwise provided by law.

(3) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who conspires with a person actively involved in the creation or knowing distribution of material in violation of this section or who knowingly advertises the availability of material of that nature.

(4) A provider or user of an interactive computer service, as defined in section 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code, shall neither be treated as the publisher or speaker of any information provided by another information content provider, as defined insection 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code, nor held civilly or criminally liable for the creation or development of information provided by another information content provider, as defined in section 230 of Title 47 of the United States Code. Nothing in this division shall be construed to protect a person from liability to the extent that the person developed or created any content in violation of this section.

(F) Divisions (A)(5) to (11) and (B)(2) of this section do not apply to a person who, while employed or contracted by a newspaper, magazine, press association, news agency, news wire service, cable channel or cable operator, or radio or television station, is gathering, processing, transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for the general public within the scope of the person’s employment in that capacity or the person’s contractual authority in that capacity.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) “Economic harm” means all direct, incidental, and consequential pecuniary harm suffered by a victim as a result of criminal conduct. “Economic harm” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(a) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost as a result of the criminal conduct;

(b) The cost of all wages, salaries, or other compensation paid to employees for time those employees are prevented from working as a result of the criminal conduct;

(c) The overhead costs incurred for the time that a business is shut down as a result of the criminal conduct;

(d) The loss of value to tangible or intangible property that was damaged as a result of the criminal conduct.

(2) “Caller” means the person described in division (A) of this section who makes or causes to be made a telecommunication or who permits a telecommunication to be made from a telecommunications device under that person’s control.

(3) “Telecommunication” and “telecommunications device” have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Sexual activity” has the same meaning as in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Family or household member” means any of the following:

(a) Any of the following who is residing or has resided with the recipient of the telecommunication against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(9) of this section is committed:

(i) A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the recipient;

(ii) A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the recipient, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the recipient;

(iii) A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the recipient, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the recipient.

(b) The natural parent of any child of whom the recipient of the telecommunication against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(9) of this section is committed is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

(6) “Person living as a spouse” means a person who is living or has lived with the recipient of the telecommunication against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(9) of this section is committed in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with the recipient, or who otherwise has cohabited with the recipient within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.

(7) “Cable operator” has the same meaning as in section 1332.21 of the Revised Code.

(H) Nothing in this section prohibits a person from making a telecommunication to a debtor that is in compliance with the “Fair Debt Collection Practices Act,” 91 Stat. 874 (1977), 15 U.S.C. 1692, as amended, or the “Telephone Consumer Protection Act,” 105 Stat. 2395 (1991), 47 U.S.C. 227, as amended.

2917.211 Nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section:

(1) “Disseminate” means to post, distribute, or publish on a computer device, computer network, web site, or other electronic device or medium of communication.

(2) “Image” means a photograph, film, videotape, digital recording, or other depiction or portrayal of a person.

(3) “Interactive computer service” has the meaning defined in the “Telecommunications Act of 1996,” 47 U.S.C. 230, as amended.

(4) “Internet provider” means a provider of internet service, including all of the following:

(a) Broadband service, however defined or classified by the federal communications commission;

(b) Information service or telecommunications service, both as defined in the “Telecommunications Act of 1996,” 47 U.S.C. 153, as amended;

(c) Internet protocol-enabled services, as defined in section 4927.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Mobile service” and “telecommunications carrier” have the meanings defined in 47 U.S.C. 153, as amended.

(6) “Cable service provider” has the same meaning as in section 1332.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) “Direct-to-home satellite service” has the meaning defined in 47 U.S.C. 303, as amended.

(8) “Video service provider” has the same meaning as in section 1332.21 of the Revised Code.

(9) “Sexual act” means any of the following:

(a) Sexual activity;

(b) Masturbation;

(c) An act involving a bodily substance that is performed for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification;

(d) Sado-masochistic abuse.

(B) No person shall knowingly disseminate an image of another person if all of the following apply:

(1) The person in the image is eighteen years of age or older.

(2) The person in the image can be identified from the image itself or from information displayed in connection with the image and the offender supplied the identifying information.

(3) The person in the image is in a state of nudity or is engaged in a sexual act.

(4) The image is disseminated without consent from the person in the image.

(5) The image is disseminated with intent to harm the person in the image.

(C) This section does not prohibit the dissemination of an image if any of the following apply:

(1) The image is disseminated for the purpose of a criminal investigation that is otherwise lawful.

(2) The image is disseminated for the purpose of, or in connection with, the reporting of unlawful conduct.

(3) The image is part of a news report or commentary or an artistic or expressive work, such as a performance, work of art, literary work, theatrical work, musical work, motion picture, film, or audiovisual work.

(4) The image is disseminated by a law enforcement officer, or a corrections officer or guard in a detention facility, acting within the scope of the person’s official duties.

(5) The image is disseminated for another lawful public purpose.

(6) The person in the image is knowingly and willingly in a state of nudity or engaged in a sexual act and is knowingly and willingly in a location in which the person does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy.

(7) The image is disseminated for the purpose of medical treatment or examination.

(D) The following entities are not liable for a violation of this section solely as a result of an image or other information provided by another person:

(1) A provider of interactive computer service;

(2) A mobile service;

(3) A telecommunications carrier;

(4) An internet provider;

(5) A cable service provider;

(6) A direct-to-home satellite service;

(7) A video service provider.

(E) Any conduct that is a violation of this section and any other section of the Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section, the other section, or both sections.

(F)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this section, whoever violates this section is guilty of nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section, nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(c) If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of this section, nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(d) If the offender is under eighteen years of age and the person in the image is not more than five years older than the offender, the offender shall not be prosecuted under this section.

(2) In addition to any other penalty or disposition authorized or required by law, the court may order any person who is convicted of a violation of this section or who is adjudicated delinquent by reason of a violation of this section to criminally forfeit all of the following property to the state under Chapter 2981. of the Revised Code:

(a) Any profits or proceeds and any property the person has acquired or maintained in violation of this section that the sentencing court determines to have been acquired or maintained as a result of the violation;

(b) Any interest in, securities of, claim against, or property or contractual right of any kind affording a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, or conducted in violation of this section that the sentencing court determines to have been acquired or maintained as a result of the violation.

(G) A victim of a violation of this section may commence a civil cause of action against the offender, as described in section 2307.66 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 2919. Offenses Against the Family

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Misrepresentation and Nondisclosure by Childcare Provider

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2919.23 Interference with custody

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person, knowing the person is without privilege to do so or being reckless in that regard, shall entice, take, keep, or harbor a person identified in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section from the parent, guardian, or custodian of the person identified in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section:

(1) A child under the age of eighteen, or a child with a mental or physical disability under the age of twenty-one;

(2) A person committed by law to an institution for delinquent, unruly, neglected, abused, or dependent children;

(3) A person committed by law to an institution for persons with mental illnesses or an institution for persons with intellectual disabilities.

(B) No person shall aid, abet, induce, cause, or encourage a child or a ward of the juvenile court who has been committed to the custody of any person, department, or public or private institution to leave the custody of that person, department, or institution without legal consent.

(C) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of enticing or taking under division (A)(1) of this section, that the actor reasonably believed that the actor’s conduct was necessary to preserve the child’s health or safety. It is an affirmative defense to a charge of keeping or harboring under division (A) of this section, that the actor in good faith gave notice to law enforcement or judicial authorities within a reasonable time after the child or committed person came under the actor’s shelter, protection, or influence.

(D)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of interference with custody.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a violation of division (A)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the child who is the subject of a violation of division (A)(1) of this section is removed from the state or if the offender previously has been convicted of an offense under this section, a violation of division (A)(1) of this section is a felony of the fifth degree. If the child who is the subject of a violation of division (A)(1) of this section suffers physical harm as a result of the violation, a violation of division (A)(1) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree.

(3) A violation of division (A)(2) or (3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(4) A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day of violation of division (B) of this section is a separate offense.

Domestic Violence

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2919.25 Domestic violence

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall knowingly cause or attempt to cause physical harm to a family or household member.

(B) No person shall recklessly cause serious physical harm to a family or household member.

(C) No person, by threat of force, shall knowingly cause a family or household member to believe that the offender will cause imminent physical harm to the family or household member.

(D)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of domestic violence, and the court shall sentence the offender as provided in divisions (D)(2) to (6) of this section.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (D)(3) to (5) of this section, a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree, and a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) of this section, if the offender previously has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of domestic violence, a violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States that is substantially similar to domestic violence, a violation of section 2903.14, 2909.06, 2909.07, 2911.12, 2911.211, or 2919.22 of the Revised Code if the victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, a violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States that is substantially similar to any of those sections if the victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the violation, or any offense of violence if the victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the offense, a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree, and, if the offender knew that the victim of the violation was pregnant at the time of the violation, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender pursuant to division (D)(6) of this section, and a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(4) If the offender previously has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of two or more offenses of domestic violence or two or more violations or offenses of the type described in division (D)(3) of this section involving a person who was a family or household member at the time of the violations or offenses, a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the third degree, and, if the offender knew that the victim of the violation was pregnant at the time of the violation, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender pursuant to division (D)(6) of this section, and a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(3) or (4) of this section, if the offender knew that the victim of the violation was pregnant at the time of the violation, a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the fifth degree, and the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender pursuant to division (D)(6) of this section, and a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(6) If division (D)(3), (4), or (5) of this section requires the court that sentences an offender for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section to impose a mandatory prison term on the offender pursuant to this division, the court shall impose the mandatory prison term as follows:

(a) If the violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the fourth or fifth degree, except as otherwise provided in division (D)(6)(b) or (c) of this section, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender of at least six months.

(b) If the violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the fifth degree and the offender, in committing the violation, caused serious physical harm to the pregnant woman’s unborn or caused the termination of the pregnant woman’s pregnancy, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender of twelve months.

(c) If the violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree and the offender, in committing the violation, caused serious physical harm to the pregnant woman’s unborn or caused the termination of the pregnant woman’s pregnancy, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender of at least twelve months.

(d) If the violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the third degree, except as otherwise provided in division (D)(6)(e) of this section and notwithstanding the range of definite prison terms prescribed in division (A)(3) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the third degree, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender of either a definite term of six months or one of the prison terms prescribed in division (A)(3)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for felonies of the third degree.

(e) If the violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony of the third degree and the offender, in committing the violation, caused serious physical harm to the pregnant woman’s unborn or caused the termination of the pregnant woman’s pregnancy, notwithstanding the range of definite prison terms prescribed in division (A)(3) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for a felony of the third degree, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term on the offender of either a definite term of one year or one of the prison terms prescribed in division (A)(3)(b) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for felonies of the third degree.

(E) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing of charges against a person alleging that the person violated this section or a municipal ordinance substantially similar to this section or in connection with the prosecution of any charges so filed.

(F) As used in this section and sections 2919.251 and 2919.26 of the Revised Code:

(1) “Family or household member” means any of the following:

(a) Any of the following who is residing or has resided with the offender:

(i) A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the offender;

(ii) A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the offender, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the offender;

(iii) A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the offender, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the offender.

(b) The natural parent of any child of whom the offender is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

(2) “Person living as a spouse” means a person who is living or has lived with the offender in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with the offender, or who otherwise has cohabited with the offender within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.

(3) “Pregnant woman’s unborn” has the same meaning as “such other person’s unborn,” as set forth in section 2903.09 of the Revised Code, as it relates to the pregnant woman. Division (C) of that section applies regarding the use of the term in this section, except that the second and third sentences of division (C)(1) of that section shall be construed for purposes of this section as if they included a reference to this section in the listing of Revised Code sections they contain.

(4) “Termination of the pregnant woman’s pregnancy” has the same meaning as “unlawful termination of another’s pregnancy,” as set forth in section 2903.09 of the Revised Code, as it relates to the pregnant woman. Division (C) of that section applies regarding the use of the term in this section, except that the second and third sentences of division (C)(1) of that section shall be construed for purposes of this section as if they included a reference to this section in the listing of Revised Code sections they contain.

2919.251 Factors to be considered when setting bail; bail schedule; appearance by video conferencing equipment

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) Subject to division (D) of this section, a person who is charged with the commission of any offense of violence shall appear before the court for the setting of bail if the alleged victim of the offense charged was a family or household member at the time of the offense and if any of the following applies:

(1) The person charged, at the time of the alleged offense, was subject to the terms of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code or previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code involving a protection order or consent agreement of that type, a violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States that is substantially similar to either section, a violation of section 2909.06, 2909.07, 2911.12, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code if the victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, a violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States that is substantially similar to any of those sections if the victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the violation, or any offense of violence if the victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the offense;

(2) The arresting officer indicates in a police report or other document accompanying the complaint any of the following:

(a) That the arresting officer observed on the alleged victim objective manifestations of physical harm that the arresting officer reasonably believes are a result of the alleged offense;

(b) That the arresting officer reasonably believes that the person had on the person’s person at the time of the alleged offense a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance;

(c) That the arresting officer reasonably believes that the person presents a credible threat of serious physical harm to the alleged victim or to any other person if released on bail before trial.

(B) To the extent that information about any of the following is available to the court, the court shall consider all of the following, in addition to any other circumstances considered by the court and notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary contained in section 2937.011 of the Revised Code, before setting bail for a person who appears before the court pursuant to division (A) of this section:

(1) Whether the person has a history of domestic violence or a history of other violent acts;

(2) The mental health of the person;

(3) Whether the person has a history of violating the orders of any court or governmental entity;

(4) Whether the person is potentially a threat to any other person;

(5) Whether the person has access to deadly weapons or a history of using deadly weapons;

(6) Whether the person has a history of abusing alcohol or any controlled substance;

(7) The severity of the alleged violence that is the basis of the offense, including but not limited to, the duration of the alleged violent incident, and whether the alleged violent incident involved serious physical injury, sexual assault, strangulation, abuse during the alleged victim’s pregnancy, abuse of pets, or forcible entry to gain access to the alleged victim;

(8) Whether a separation of the person from the alleged victim or a termination of the relationship between the person and the alleged victim has recently occurred or is pending;

(9) Whether the person has exhibited obsessive or controlling behaviors toward the alleged victim, including but not limited to, stalking, surveillance, or isolation of the alleged victim;

(10) Whether the person has expressed suicidal or homicidal ideations;

(11) Any information contained in the complaint and any police reports, affidavits, or other documents accompanying the complaint.

(C) Any court that has jurisdiction over charges alleging the commission of an offense of violence in circumstances in which the alleged victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the offense may set a schedule for bail to be used in cases involving those offenses. The schedule shall require that a judge consider all of the factors listed in division (B) of this section and may require judges to set bail at a certain level if the history of the alleged offender or the circumstances of the alleged offense meet certain criteria in the schedule.

(D)(1) Upon the court’s own motion or the motion of a party and upon any terms that the court may direct, a court may permit a person who is required to appear before it by division (A) of this section to appear by video conferencing equipment.

(2) If in the opinion of the court the appearance in person or by video conferencing equipment of a person who is charged with a misdemeanor and who is required to appear before the court by division (A) of this section is not practicable, the court may waive the appearance and release the person on bail in accordance with the court’s schedule for bail set under division (C) of this section or, if the court has not set a schedule for bail under that division, on one or both of the following types of bail in an amount set by the court:

(a) A bail bond secured by a deposit of ten per cent of the amount of the bond in cash;

(b) A surety bond, a bond secured by real estate or securities as allowed by law, or the deposit of cash, at the option of the person.

(3) Division (A) of this section does not create a right in a person to appear before the court for the setting of bail or prohibit a court from requiring any person charged with an offense of violence who is not described in that division from appearing before the court for the setting of bail.

(E) As used in this section:

(1) “Controlled substance” has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) “Dangerous ordnance” and “deadly weapon” have the same meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.

2919.26 Temporary protection orders

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1) Upon the filing of a complaint or indictment that alleges a violation of section 2909.06, 2909.07, 2911.12, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code if the alleged victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any of those sections if the alleged victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, any offense of violence if the alleged victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the offense, or any sexually oriented offense if the alleged victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the offense, the complainant, the alleged victim, or a family or household member of an alleged victim may file, or, if in an emergency the alleged victim is unable to file, a person who made an arrest for the alleged violation or offense under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code may file on behalf of the alleged victim, a motion that requests the issuance of a temporary protection order as a pretrial condition of release of the alleged offender, in addition to any bail set under Criminal Rule 46. The motion shall be filed with the clerk of the court that has jurisdiction of the case at any time after the filing of the complaint or indictment.
 

(2) For purposes of section 2930.09 of the Revised Code, all stages of a proceeding arising out of a complaint or indictment alleging the commission of a violation, offense of violence, or sexually oriented offense described in division (A)(1) of this section, including all proceedings on a motion for a temporary protection order, are critical stages of the case, and a victim may be accompanied by a victim advocate or another person to provide support to the victim as provided in that section.
 

(B) The motion shall be prepared on a form that is provided by the clerk of the court, which form shall be substantially as follows:
 

“MOTION FOR TEMPORARY PROTECTION ORDER
 

__________________________ Court
 

Name and address of court
 

State of Ohio
 
                    
                    

v.
 
            No.    
 
    
                

                
Name of Defendant
 
                

(name of person), moves the court to issue a temporary protection order containing terms designed to ensure the safety and protection of the complainant, alleged victim, and other family or household members, in relation to the named defendant, pursuant to its authority to issue such an order under section 2919.26 of the Revised Code.
 

A complaint or indictment, a copy of which has been attached to this motion, has been filed in this court charging the named defendant with __________________________ (name of the specified violation, the offense of violence, or sexually oriented offense charged) in circumstances in which the victim was a family or household member in violation of (section of the Revised Code designating the specified violation, offense of violence, or sexually oriented offense charged), or charging the named defendant with a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to ________________________ (section of the Revised Code designating the specified violation, offense of violence, or sexually oriented offense charged) involving a family or household member.
 

I understand that I must appear before the court, at a time set by the court within twenty-four hours after the filing of this motion, for a hearing on the motion or that, if I am unable to appear because of hospitalization or a medical condition resulting from the offense alleged in the complaint or indictment, a person who can provide information about my need for a temporary protection order must appear before the court in lieu of my appearing in court. I understand that any temporary protection order granted pursuant to this motion is a pretrial condition of release and is effective only until the disposition of the criminal proceeding arising out of the attached complaint or indictment, or the issuance of a civil protection order or the approval of a consent agreement, arising out of the same activities as those that were the basis of the complaint or indictment, under section 3113.31 of the Revised Code.
 

__________________________________________
 

Signature of person
 

(or signature of the arresting officer who filed the motion on behalf of the alleged victim)
 

__________________________________________
 

Address of person (or office address of the arresting officer who filed the motion on behalf of the alleged victim)”
 

(C)(1) As soon as possible after the filing of a motion that requests the issuance of a temporary protection order, but not later than twenty-four hours after the filing of the motion, the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether to issue the order. The person who requested the order shall appear before the court and provide the court with the information that it requests concerning the basis of the motion. If the person who requested the order is unable to appear and if the court finds that the failure to appear is because of the person’s hospitalization or medical condition resulting from the offense alleged in the complaint or indictment, another person who is able to provide the court with the information it requests may appear in lieu of the person who requested the order. If the court finds that the safety and protection of the complainant, alleged victim, or any other family or household member of the alleged victim may be impaired by the continued presence of the alleged offender, the court may issue a temporary protection order, as a pretrial condition of release, that contains terms designed to ensure the safety and protection of the complainant, alleged victim, or the family or household member, including a requirement that the alleged offender refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the complainant, alleged victim, or the family or household member. The court may include within a protection order issued under this section a term requiring that the alleged offender not remove, damage, hide, harm, or dispose of any companion animal owned or possessed by the complainant, alleged victim, or any other family or household member of the alleged victim, and may include within the order a term authorizing the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member of the alleged victim to remove a companion animal owned by the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member from the possession of the alleged offender.
 

(2)(a) If the court issues a temporary protection order that includes a requirement that the alleged offender refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the complainant, the alleged victim, or the family or household member, the order shall state clearly that the order cannot be waived or nullified by an invitation to the alleged offender from the complainant, alleged victim, or family or household member to enter the residence, school, business, or place of employment or by the alleged offender’s entry into one of those places otherwise upon the consent of the complainant, alleged victim, or family or household member.
 

(b) Division (C)(2)(a) of this section does not limit any discretion of a court to determine that an alleged offender charged with a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, with a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to that section, or with contempt of court, which charge is based on an alleged violation of a temporary protection order issued under this section, did not commit the violation or was not in contempt of court.
 

(D)(1) Upon the filing of a complaint or indictment that alleges a violation of section 2909.06, 2909.07, 2911.12, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code if the alleged victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any of those sections if the alleged victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, any offense of violence if the alleged victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the offense, or any sexually oriented offense if the alleged victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the offense, the court, upon its own motion, may issue a temporary protection order as a pretrial condition of release if it finds that the safety and protection of the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member of the alleged offender may be impaired by the continued presence of the alleged offender.
 

(2) If the court issues a temporary protection order under this section as an ex parte order, it shall conduct, as soon as possible after the issuance of the order, a hearing in the presence of the alleged offender not later than the next day on which the court is scheduled to conduct business after the day on which the alleged offender was arrested or at the time of the appearance of the alleged offender pursuant to summons to determine whether the order should remain in effect, be modified, or be revoked. The hearing shall be conducted under the standards set forth in division (C) of this section.
 

(3) An order issued under this section shall contain only those terms authorized in orders issued under division (C) of this section.
 

(4) If a municipal court or a county court issues a temporary protection order under this section and if, subsequent to the issuance of the order, the alleged offender who is the subject of the order is bound over to the court of common pleas for prosecution of a felony arising out of the same activities as those that were the basis of the complaint upon which the order is based, notwithstanding the fact that the order was issued by a municipal court or county court, the order shall remain in effect, as though it were an order of the court of common pleas, while the charges against the alleged offender are pending in the court of common pleas, for the period of time described in division (E)(2) of this section, and the court of common pleas has exclusive jurisdiction to modify the order issued by the municipal court or county court. This division applies when the alleged offender is bound over to the court of common pleas as a result of the person waiving a preliminary hearing on the felony charge, as a result of the municipal court or county court having determined at a preliminary hearing that there is probable cause to believe that the felony has been committed and that the alleged offender committed it, as a result of the alleged offender having been indicted for the felony, or in any other manner.
 

(E) A temporary protection order that is issued as a pretrial condition of release under this section:
 

(1) Is in addition to, but shall not be construed as a part of, any bail set under Criminal Rule 46;
 

(2) Is effective only until the occurrence of either of the following:
 

(a) The disposition, by the court that issued the order or, in the circumstances described in division (D)(4) of this section, by the court of common pleas to which the alleged offender is bound over for prosecution, of the criminal proceeding arising out of the complaint or indictment upon which the order is based;
 

(b) The issuance of a protection order or the approval of a consent agreement, arising out of the same activities as those that were the basis of the complaint or indictment upon which the order is based, under section 3113.31 of the Revised Code.
 

(3) Shall not be construed as a finding that the alleged offender committed the alleged offense, and shall not be introduced as evidence of the commission of the offense at the trial of the alleged offender on the complaint or indictment upon which the order is based.
 

(F) A person who meets the criteria for bail under Criminal Rule 46 and who, if required to do so pursuant to that rule, executes or posts bond or deposits cash or securities as bail, shall not be held in custody pending a hearing before the court on a motion requesting a temporary protection order.
 

(G)(1) A copy of any temporary protection order that is issued under this section shall be issued by the court to the complainant, to the alleged victim, to the person who requested the order, to the defendant, and to all law enforcement agencies that have jurisdiction to enforce the order. The court shall direct that a copy of the order be delivered to the defendant on the same day that the order is entered. If a municipal court or a county court issues a temporary protection order under this section and if, subsequent to the issuance of the order, the defendant who is the subject of the order is bound over to the court of common pleas for prosecution as described in division (D)(4) of this section, the municipal court or county court shall direct that a copy of the order be delivered to the court of common pleas to which the defendant is bound over.
 

(2) Upon the issuance of a protection order under this section, the court shall provide the parties to the order with the following notice orally or by form:
 

“NOTICE
 

As a result of this protection order, it may be unlawful for you to possess or purchase a firearm, including a rifle, pistol, or revolver, or ammunition pursuant to federal law under 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) for the duration of this order. If you have any questions whether this law makes it illegal for you to possess or purchase a firearm or ammunition, you should consult an attorney.”
 

(3) All law enforcement agencies shall establish and maintain an index for the temporary protection orders delivered to the agencies pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section. With respect to each order delivered, each agency shall note on the index, the date and time of the receipt of the order by the agency.
 

(4) A complainant, alleged victim, or other person who obtains a temporary protection order under this section may provide notice of the issuance of the temporary protection order to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county other than the county in which the order is issued by registering that order in the other county in accordance with division (N) of section 3113.31 of the Revised Code and filing a copy of the registered protection order with a law enforcement agency in the other county in accordance with that division.
 

(5) Any officer of a law enforcement agency shall enforce a temporary protection order issued by any court in this state in accordance with the provisions of the order, including removing the defendant from the premises, regardless of whether the order is registered in the county in which the officer’s agency has jurisdiction as authorized by division (G)(4) of this section.
 

(H) Upon a violation of a temporary protection order, the court may issue another temporary protection order, as a pretrial condition of release, that modifies the terms of the order that was violated.
 

(I)(1) As used in divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this section, “defendant” means a person who is alleged in a complaint or indictment to have committed a violation, offense of violence, or sexually oriented offense of the type described in division (A) of this section.
 

(2) If a complaint or indictment is filed that alleges that a person committed a violation, offense of violence, or sexually oriented offense of the type described in division (A) of this section, the court may not issue a temporary protection order under this section that requires the complainant, the alleged victim, or another family or household member of the defendant to do or refrain from doing an act that the court may require the defendant to do or refrain from doing under a temporary protection order unless both of the following apply:
 

(a) The defendant has filed a separate complaint that alleges that the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member in question who would be required under the order to do or refrain from doing the act committed a violation or offense of violence of the type described in division (A) of this section.
 

(b) The court determines that both the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member in question who would be required under the order to do or refrain from doing the act and the defendant acted primarily as aggressors, that neither the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member in question who would be required under the order to do or refrain from doing the act nor the defendant acted primarily in self-defense, and, in accordance with the standards and criteria of this section as applied in relation to the separate complaint filed by the defendant, that it should issue the order to require the complainant, alleged victim, or other family or household member in question to do or refrain from doing the act.
 

(J)(1) Subject to division (J)(2) of this section and regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved by a court of another county or a court of another state, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge the movant any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing of a motion pursuant to this section, in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.
 

(2) Regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved pursuant to this section, if the defendant is convicted the court may assess costs against the defendant in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.
 

(K) As used in this section:
 

(1) “Companion animal” has the same meaning as in section 959.131 of the Revised Code.
 

(2) “Sexually oriented offense” has the same meaning as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.
 

(3) “Victim advocate” means a person who provides support and assistance for a victim of an offense during court proceedings.

2919.27 Violating a protection order, consent agreement, or anti-stalking protection order; protection order issued by court of another state

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person shall recklessly violate the terms of any of the following:

(1) A protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code;

(2) A protection order issued pursuant to section 2151.34, 2903.213, or 2903.214 of the Revised Code;

(3) A protection order issued by a court of another state.

(B)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of violating a protection order.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3) or (4) of this section, violating a protection order is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3) Violating a protection order is a felony of the fifth degree if the offender previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for any of the following:

(a) A violation of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2151.34, 2903.213, 2903.214, 2919.26, or 3113.31 of the Revised Code;

(b) Two or more violations of section 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, or 2911.211 of the Revised Code, or any combination of those offenses, that involved the same person who is the subject of the protection order or consent agreement;

(c) One or more violations of this section.

(4) If the offender violates a protection order or consent agreement while committing a felony offense, violating a protection order is a felony of the third degree.

(5) If the protection order violated by the offender was an order issued pursuant to section 2151.34 or 2903.214 of the Revised Code that required electronic monitoring of the offender pursuant to that section, the court may require in addition to any other sentence imposed upon the offender that the offender be electronically monitored for a period not exceeding five years by a law enforcement agency designated by the court. If the court requires under this division that the offender be electronically monitored, unless the court determines that the offender is indigent, the court shall order that the offender pay the costs of the installation of the electronic monitoring device and the cost of monitoring the electronic monitoring device.

(C) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A)(3) of this section that the protection order issued by a court of another state does not comply with the requirements specified in 18 U.S.C. 2265(b) for a protection order that must be accorded full faith and credit by a court of this state or that it is not entitled to full faith and credit under 18 U.S.C. 2265(c).

(D) In a prosecution for a violation of this section, it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that the protection order or consent agreement was served on the defendant if the prosecution proves that the defendant was shown the protection order or consent agreement or a copy of either or a judge, magistrate, or law enforcement officer informed the defendant that a protection order or consent agreement had been issued, and proves that the defendant recklessly violated the terms of the order or agreement.

(E) As used in this section, “protection order issued by a court of another state” means an injunction or another order issued by a criminal court of another state for the purpose of preventing violent or threatening acts or harassment against, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to another person, including a temporary order, and means an injunction or order of that nature issued by a civil court of another state, including a temporary order and a final order issued in an independent action or as a pendente lite order in a proceeding for other relief, if the court issued it in response to a complaint, petition, or motion filed by or on behalf of a person seeking protection. ”Protection order issued by a court of another state” does not include an order for support or for custody of a child issued pursuant to the divorce and child custody laws of another state, except to the extent that the order for support or for custody of a child is entitled to full faith and credit under the laws of the United States.

2919.271 Mental condition evaluations

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1)(a) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant if the court determines that either of the following criteria apply:

(i) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of a family or household member covered by the order or agreement, or conduct by the defendant that caused a family or household member to believe that the defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that member’s property.

(ii) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the Revised Code or a protection order issued by a court of another state, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of the person covered by the order, or conduct by the defendant that caused the person covered by the order to believe that the defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that person’s property.

(b) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant.

(2) An evaluation ordered under division (A)(1) of this section shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date the order is entered pursuant to that division. In that order, the court shall do either of the following:

(a) Order that the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant be preceded by an examination conducted either by a forensic center that is designated by the department of mental health and addiction services to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of substantially similar municipal ordinances in the area in which the court is located, or by any other program or facility that is designated by the department of mental health and addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of substantially similar municipal ordinances, and that is operated by either department or is certified by either department as being in compliance with the standards established under division (B)(7) of section 5119.10 of the Revised Code or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code.

(b) Designate a center, program, or facility other than one designated by the department of mental health and addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities, as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, to conduct the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental condition of the defendant.

Whether the court acts pursuant to division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, the court may designate examiners other than the personnel of the center, program, facility, or department involved to make the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental condition of the defendant.

(B) If the court considers that additional evaluations of the mental condition of a defendant are necessary following the evaluation authorized by division (A) of this section, the court may order up to two additional similar evaluations. These evaluations shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date the applicable court order is entered. If more than one evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant is ordered under this division, the prosecutor and the defendant may recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform one of the evaluations and preceding examinations.

(C)(1) The court may order a defendant who has been released on bail to submit to an examination under division (A) or (B) of this section. The examination shall be conducted either at the detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or facility. Additionally, the examination shall be conducted at the times established by the examiners involved. If such a defendant refuses to submit to an examination or a complete examination as required by the court or the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, the court may amend the conditions of the bail of the defendant and order the sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the defendant to the detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, to the premises of the center, program, or facility, for purposes of the examination.

(2) A defendant who has not been released on bail shall be examined at the detention facility in which the defendant is confined or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or facility.

(D) The examiner of the mental condition of a defendant under division (A) or (B) of this section shall file a written report with the court within thirty days after the entry of an order for the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant. The report shall contain the findings of the examiner; the facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are based; the opinion of the examiner as to the mental condition of the defendant; the opinion of the examiner as to whether the defendant represents a substantial risk of physical harm to other persons as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent behavior, evidence of recent threats that placed other persons in reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or evidence of present dangerousness; and the opinion of the examiner as to the types of treatment or counseling that the defendant needs. The court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense counsel.

(E) The costs of any evaluation and preceding examination of a defendant that is ordered pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section shall be taxed as court costs in the criminal case.

(F) If the examiner considers it necessary in order to make an accurate evaluation of the mental condition of a defendant, an examiner under division (A) or (B) of this section may request any family or household member of the defendant to provide the examiner with information. A family or household member may, but is not required to, provide information to the examiner upon receipt of the request.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) “Bail” includes a recognizance.

(2) “Examiner” means a psychiatrist, a licensed independent social worker who is employed by a forensic center that is certified as being in compliance with the standards established under division (B)(7) of section 5119.10 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code, a licensed professional clinical counselor who is employed at a forensic center that is certified as being in compliance with such standards, or a licensed clinical psychologist, except that in order to be an examiner, a licensed clinical psychologist shall meet the criteria of division (I) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or be employed to conduct examinations by the department of mental health and addiction services or by a forensic center certified as being in compliance with the standards established under division (B)(7) of section 5119.10 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code that is designated by the department of mental health and addiction services.

(3) “Family or household member” has the same meaning as in section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Prosecutor” has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Psychiatrist” and “licensed clinical psychologist” have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) “Protection order issued by a court of another state” has the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.

2919.272 Protection order issued by court of another state; procedure for registration in Ohio; registry of orders by law enforcement agencies

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section, “protection order issued by a court of another state” has the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) A person who has obtained a protection order issued by a court of another state may provide notice of the issuance of the order to judicial and law enforcement officials in any county of this state by registering the order in that county and filing a copy of the registered order with a law enforcement agency in that county. To register the order, the person shall obtain a certified copy of the order from the clerk of the court that issued the order and present that certified copy to the clerk of the court of common pleas or the clerk of a municipal court or county court in the county in which the order is to be registered. Upon accepting the certified copy of the order for registration, the clerk shall place an endorsement of registration on the order and give the person a copy of the order that bears proof of registration. The person then may file with a law enforcement agency in that county a copy of the order that bears proof of registration.

(C) The clerk of each court of common pleas and the clerk of each municipal court and county court shall maintain a registry of certified copies of protection orders issued by courts of another state that have been registered with the clerk. Each law enforcement agency shall establish and maintain a registry for protection orders delivered to the agency pursuant to this section. The agency shall note in the registry the date and time that the agency received an order.

(D) An officer of a law enforcement agency shall enforce a protection order issued by a court of another state in accordance with the provisions of the order, including removing the person allegedly violating the order from the premises, regardless of whether the order is registered as authorized by division (B) of this section in the county in which the officer’s agency has jurisdiction.

(E)(1) Subject to division (E)(2) of this section and regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved by a court of another county or a court of another state, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge a person who registers and files an order any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement, including a protection order issued by a court of another state.

(2) Regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved pursuant to this section, the court may assess costs against the person who is subject to a registered and filed order in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

Chapter 2921. Offenses Against Justice and Public Administration

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2921.33 Resisting arrest.

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person, recklessly or by force, shall resist or interfere with a lawful arrest of the person or another.

(B) No person, recklessly or by force, shall resist or interfere with a lawful arrest of the person or another person and, during the course of or as a result of the resistance or interference, cause physical harm to a law enforcement officer.

(C) No person, recklessly or by force, shall resist or interfere with a lawful arrest of the person or another person if either of the following applies:

(1) The offender, during the course of or as a result of the resistance or interference, recklessly causes physical harm to a law enforcement officer by means of a deadly weapon;

(2) The offender, during the course of the resistance or interference, brandishes a deadly weapon.

(D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of resisting arrest. A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. A violation of division (C) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree.

(E) As used in this section, “deadly weapon” has the same meaning as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 2923. Conspiracy, Attempt, and Complicity; Weapons Control

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Weapons Control

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2923.11 Definitions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

As used in sections 2923.11 to 2923.24 of the Revised Code:

(A) “Deadly weapon” means any instrument, device, or thing capable of inflicting death, and designed or specially adapted for use as a weapon, or possessed, carried, or used as a weapon.

(B)(1) “Firearm” means any deadly weapon capable of expelling or propelling one or more projectiles by the action of an explosive or combustible propellant. “Firearm” includes an unloaded firearm, and any firearm that is inoperable but that can readily be rendered operable.

(2) When determining whether a firearm is capable of expelling or propelling one or more projectiles by the action of an explosive or combustible propellant, the trier of fact may rely upon circumstantial evidence, including, but not limited to, the representations and actions of the individual exercising control over the firearm.

(C) “Handgun” means any of the following:

(1) Any firearm that has a short stock and is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand;

(2) Any combination of parts from which a firearm of a type described in division (C)(1) of this section can be assembled.

(D) “Semi-automatic firearm” means any firearm designed or specially adapted to fire a single cartridge and automatically chamber a succeeding cartridge ready to fire, with a single function of the trigger.

(E) “Automatic firearm” means any firearm designed or specially adapted to fire a succession of cartridges with a single function of the trigger.

(F) “Sawed-off firearm” means a shotgun with a barrel less than eighteen inches long, or a rifle with a barrel less than sixteen inches long, or a shotgun or rifle less than twenty-six inches long overall. “Sawed-off firearm” does not include any firearm with an overall length of at least twenty-six inches that is approved for sale by the federal bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives under the “Gun Control Act of 1968,” 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(3), but that is found by the bureau not to be regulated under the “National Firearms Act,” 68A Stat. 725 (1934), 26 U.S.C. 5845(a).

(G) “Zip-gun” means any of the following:

(1) Any firearm of crude and extemporized manufacture;

(2) Any device, including without limitation a starter’s pistol, that is not designed as a firearm, but that is specially adapted for use as a firearm;

(3) Any industrial tool, signalling device, or safety device, that is not designed as a firearm, but that as designed is capable of use as such, when possessed, carried, or used as a firearm.

(H) “Explosive device” means any device designed or specially adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of an explosion, and consisting of an explosive substance or agency and a means to detonate it. “Explosive device” includes without limitation any bomb, any explosive demolition device, any blasting cap or detonator containing an explosive charge, and any pressure vessel that has been knowingly tampered with or arranged so as to explode.

(I) “Incendiary device” means any firebomb, and any device designed or specially adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of fire, and consisting of an incendiary substance or agency and a means to ignite it.

(J) “Ballistic knife” means a knife with a detachable blade that is propelled by a spring-operated mechanism.

(K) “Dangerous ordnance” means any of the following, except as provided in division (L) of this section:

(1) Any automatic or sawed-off firearm, zip-gun, or ballistic knife;

(2) Any explosive device or incendiary device;

(3) Nitroglycerin, nitrocellulose, nitrostarch, PETN, cyclonite, TNT, picric acid, and other high explosives; amatol, tritonal, tetrytol, pentolite, pecretol, cyclotol, and other high explosive compositions; plastic explosives; dynamite, blasting gelatin, gelatin dynamite, sensitized ammonium nitrate, liquid-oxygen blasting explosives, blasting powder, and other blasting agents; and any other explosive substance having sufficient brisance or power to be particularly suitable for use as a military explosive, or for use in mining, quarrying, excavating, or demolitions;

(4) Any firearm, rocket launcher, mortar, artillery piece, grenade, mine, bomb, torpedo, or similar weapon, designed and manufactured for military purposes, and the ammunition for that weapon;

(5) Any firearm muffler or suppressor;

(6) Any combination of parts that is intended by the owner for use in converting any firearm or other device into a dangerous ordnance.

(L) “Dangerous ordnance” does not include any of the following:

(1) Any firearm, including a military weapon and the ammunition for that weapon, and regardless of its actual age, that employs a percussion cap or other obsolete ignition system, or that is designed and safe for use only with black powder;

(2) Any pistol, rifle, or shotgun, designed or suitable for sporting purposes, including a military weapon as issued or as modified, and the ammunition for that weapon, unless the firearm is an automatic or sawed-off firearm;

(3) Any cannon or other artillery piece that, regardless of its actual age, is of a type in accepted use prior to 1887, has no mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic, or other system for absorbing recoil and returning the tube into battery without displacing the carriage, and is designed and safe for use only with black powder;

(4) Black powder, priming quills, and percussion caps possessed and lawfully used to fire a cannon of a type defined in division (L)(3) of this section during displays, celebrations, organized matches or shoots, and target practice, and smokeless and black powder, primers, and percussion caps possessed and lawfully used as a propellant or ignition device in small-arms or small-arms ammunition;

(5) Dangerous ordnance that is inoperable or inert and cannot readily be rendered operable or activated, and that is kept as a trophy, souvenir, curio, or museum piece;

(6) Any device that is expressly excepted from the definition of a destructive device pursuant to the “Gun Control Act of 1968,” 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(4), as amended, and regulations issued under that act;

(7) Any firearm with an overall length of at least twenty-six inches that is approved for sale by the federal bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives under the “Gun Control Act of 1968,” 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(3), but that is found by the bureau not to be regulated under the “National Firearms Act,” 68A Stat. 725 (1934), 26 U.S.C. 5845(a).

(M) “Explosive” means any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion. “Explosive” includes all materials that have been classified as division 1.1, division 1.2, division 1.3, or division 1.4 explosives by the United States department of transportation in its regulations and includes, but is not limited to, dynamite, black powder, pellet powders, initiating explosives, blasting caps, electric blasting caps, safety fuses, fuse igniters, squibs, cordeau detonant fuses, instantaneous fuses, and igniter cords and igniters. “Explosive” does not include “fireworks,” as defined in section 3743.01 of the Revised Code, or any substance or material otherwise meeting the definition of explosive set forth in this section that is manufactured, sold, possessed, transported, stored, or used in any activity described in section 3743.80 of the Revised Code, provided the activity is conducted in accordance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations, including, but not limited to, the provisions of section 3743.80 of the Revised Code and the rules of the fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of the Revised Code.

(N)(1) “Concealed handgun license” or “license to carry a concealed handgun” means, subject to division (N)(2) of this section, a license or temporary emergency license to carry a concealed handgun issued under section 2923.125 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another state with which the attorney general has entered into a reciprocity agreement under section 109.69 of the Revised Code.

(2) A reference in any provision of the Revised Code to a concealed handgun license issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code means only a license of the type that is specified in that section. A reference in any provision of the Revised Code to a concealed handgun license issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, a license to carry a concealed handgun issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, or a license to carry a concealed handgun on a temporary emergency basis means only a license of the type that is specified in section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code. A reference in any provision of the Revised Code to a concealed handgun license issued by another state or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another state means only a license issued by another state with which the attorney general has entered into a reciprocity agreement under section 109.69 of the Revised Code.

(O) “Valid concealed handgun license” or “valid license to carry a concealed handgun” means a concealed handgun license that is currently valid, that is not under a suspension under division (A)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, or under a suspension provision of the state other than this state in which the license was issued, and that has not been revoked under division (B)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, or under a revocation provision of the state other than this state in which the license was issued.

(P) “Misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year” does not include any of the following:

(1) Any federal or state offense pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or other similar offenses relating to the regulation of business practices;

(2) Any misdemeanor offense punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less.

(Q) “Alien registration number” means the number issued by the United States citizenship and immigration services agency that is located on the alien’s permanent resident card and may also be commonly referred to as the “USCIS number” or the “alien number.”(R) “Active duty” has the same meaning as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101.

2923.125 Application; license; denial; appeal; duplicate license; renewal

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

It is the intent of the general assembly that Ohio concealed handgun license law be compliant with the national instant criminal background check system, that the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives is able to determine that Ohio law is compliant with the national instant criminal background check system, and that no person shall be eligible to receive a concealed handgun license permit under section 2923.125 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code unless the person is eligible lawfully to receive or possess a firearm in the United States.

(A) This section applies with respect to the application for and issuance by this state of concealed handgun licenses other than concealed handgun licenses on a temporary emergency basis that are issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code. Upon the request of a person who wishes to obtain a concealed handgun license with respect to which this section applies or to renew a concealed handgun license with respect to which this section applies, a sheriff, as provided in division (I) of this section, shall provide to the person free of charge an application form and the web site address at which a printable version of the application form that can be downloaded and the pamphlet described in division (B) of section 109.731 of the Revised Code may be found. A sheriff shall accept a completed application form and the fee, items, materials, and information specified in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section at the times and in the manners described in division (I) of this section.

(B) An applicant for a concealed handgun license who is a resident of this state shall submit a completed application form and all of the material and information described in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides. An applicant for a license who resides in another state shall submit a completed application form and all of the material and information described in divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant is employed or to the sheriff of any county adjacent to the county in which the applicant is employed:

(1)(a) A nonrefundable license fee as described in either of the following:

(i) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for five or more years, a fee of sixty-seven dollars;

(ii) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for less than five years or who is not a resident of this state, but who is employed in this state, a fee of sixty-seven dollars plus the actual cost of having a background check performed by the federal bureau of investigation.

(b) No sheriff shall require an applicant to pay for the cost of a background check performed by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation.

(c) A sheriff shall waive the payment of the license fee described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section in connection with an initial or renewal application for a license that is submitted by an applicant who is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States or has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States, a retired peace officer, a retired person described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code, or a retired federal law enforcement officer who, prior to retirement, was authorized under federal law to carry a firearm in the course of duty, unless the retired peace officer, person, or federal law enforcement officer retired as the result of a mental disability.

(d) The sheriff shall deposit all fees paid by an applicant under division (B)(1)(a) of this section into the sheriff’s concealed handgun license issuance fund established pursuant to section 311.42 of the Revised Code. The county shall distribute the fees in accordance with section 311.42 of the Revised Code.

(2) A color photograph of the applicant that was taken within thirty days prior to the date of the application;

(3) One or more of the following competency certifications, each of which shall reflect that, regarding a certification described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), (e), or (f) of this section, within the three years immediately preceding the application the applicant has performed that to which the competency certification relates and that, regarding a certification described in division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the applicant currently is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States, the applicant has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States, or within the ten years immediately preceding the application the retirement of the peace officer, person described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code, or federal law enforcement officer to which the competency certification relates occurred:

(a) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or program that was offered by or under the auspices of a national gun advocacy organization and that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;

(b) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or program that satisfies all of the following criteria:

(i) It was open to members of the general public.

(ii) It utilized qualified instructors who were certified by a national gun advocacy organization, the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.75 or 109.78 of the Revised Code, or a governmental official or entity of another state.

(iii) It was offered by or under the auspices of a law enforcement agency of this or another state or the United States, a public or private college, university, or other similar postsecondary educational institution located in this or another state, a firearms training school located in this or another state, or another type of public or private entity or organization located in this or another state.

(iv) It complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section.

(c) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion of a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer training school that is approved by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.75 of the Revised Code and that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section, or the applicant has satisfactorily completed and been issued a certificate of completion of a basic firearms training program, a firearms requalification training program, or another basic training program described in section 109.78 or 109.801 of the Revised Code that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;

(d) A document that evidences both of the following:

(i) That the applicant is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States, has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States, is a retired trooper of the state highway patrol, or is a retired peace officer or federal law enforcement officer described in division (B)(1) of this section or a retired person described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code and division (B)(1) of this section;

(ii) That, through participation in the military service or through the former employment described in division (B)(3)(d)(i) of this section, the applicant acquired experience with handling handguns or other firearms, and the experience so acquired was equivalent to training that the applicant could have acquired in a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), or (c) of this section.

(e) A certificate or another similar document that evidences satisfactory completion of a firearms training, safety, or requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or program that is not otherwise described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, that was conducted by an instructor who was certified by an official or entity of the government of this or another state or the United States or by a national gun advocacy organization, and that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;

(f) An affidavit that attests to the applicant’s satisfactory completion of a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section and that is subscribed by the applicant’s instructor or an authorized representative of the entity that offered the course, class, or program or under whose auspices the course, class, or program was offered;

(g) A document that evidences that the applicant has successfully completed the Ohio peace officer training program described in section 109.79 of the Revised Code.

(4) A certification by the applicant that the applicant has read the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force matters.

(5) A set of fingerprints of the applicant provided as described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code through use of an electronic fingerprint reading device or, if the sheriff to whom the application is submitted does not possess and does not have ready access to the use of such a reading device, on a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(6) If the applicant is not a citizen or national of the United States, the name of the applicant’s country of citizenship and the applicant’s alien registration number issued by the United States citizenship and immigration services agency.

(7) If the applicant resides in another state, adequate proof of employment in Ohio.

(C) Upon receipt of the completed application form, supporting documentation, and, if not waived, license fee of an applicant under this section, a sheriff, in the manner specified in section 311.41 of the Revised Code, shall conduct or cause to be conducted the criminal records check and the incompetency records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, within forty-five days after a sheriff’s receipt of an applicant’s completed application form for a concealed handgun license under this section, the supporting documentation, and, if not waived, the license fee, the sheriff shall make available through the law enforcement automated data system in accordance with division (H) of this section the information described in that division and, upon making the information available through the system, shall issue to the applicant a concealed handgun license that shall expire as described in division (D)(2)(a) of this section if all of the following apply:

(a) The applicant is legally living in the United States. For purposes of division (D)(1)(a) of this section, if a person is absent from the United States in compliance with military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States and if prior to leaving the United States the person was legally living in the United States, the person, solely by reason of that absence, shall not be considered to have lost the person’s status as living in the United States.

(b) The applicant is at least twenty-one years of age.

(c) The applicant is not a fugitive from justice.

(d) The applicant is not under indictment for or otherwise charged with a felony; an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of abuse; a misdemeanor offense of violence; or a violation of section 2903.14 or 2923.1211 of the Revised Code.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) or (5) of this section, the applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony or an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of abuse; has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony or would be an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of abuse; has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a peace officer, regardless of whether the applicant was sentenced under division (C)(4) of that section; and has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any other offense that is not previously described in this division that is a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year.

(f) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) or (5) of this section, the applicant, within three years of the date of the application, has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a peace officer, or a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of the Revised Code; and has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a peace officer or for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of the Revised Code.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(e) of this section, the applicant, within five years of the date of the application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing two or more violations of section 2903.13 or 2903.14 of the Revised Code.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) or (5) of this section, the applicant, within ten years of the date of the application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code.

(i) The applicant has not been committed to any mental institution, is not under adjudication of mental incompetence, has not been found by a court to be a person with a mental illness subject to court order, and is not an involuntary patient other than one who is a patient only for purposes of observation. As used in this division, “person with a mental illness subject to court order” and “patient” have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(j) The applicant is not currently subject to a civil protection order, a temporary protection order, or a protection order issued by a court of another state.

(k) The applicant certifies that the applicant desires a legal means to carry a concealed handgun for defense of the applicant or a member of the applicant’s family while engaged in lawful activity.

(l) The applicant submits a competency certification of the type described in division (B)(3) of this section and submits a certification of the type described in division (B)(4) of this section regarding the applicant’s reading of the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code.

(m) The applicant currently is not subject to a suspension imposed under division (A)(2) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code of a concealed handgun license that previously was issued to the applicant under this section or section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or a similar suspension imposed by another state regarding a concealed handgun license issued by that state.

(n) If the applicant resides in another state, the applicant is employed in this state.

(o) The applicant certifies that the applicant is not an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802.

(p) If the applicant is not a United States citizen, the applicant is an alien and has not been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa, as defined in the “Immigration and Nationality Act,” 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26).

(q) The applicant has not been discharged from the armed forces of the United States under dishonorable conditions.

(r) The applicant certifies that the applicant has not renounced the applicant’s United States citizenship, if applicable.

(s) The applicant has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code or a similar violation in another state.

(2)(a) A concealed handgun license that a sheriff issues under division (D)(1) of this section shall expire five years after the date of issuance.

 

If a sheriff issues a license under this section, the sheriff shall place on the license a unique combination of letters and numbers identifying the license in accordance with the procedure prescribed by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code.

(b) If a sheriff denies an application under this section because the applicant does not satisfy the criteria described in division (D)(1) of this section, the sheriff shall specify the grounds for the denial in a written notice to the applicant. The applicant may appeal the denial pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code in the county served by the sheriff who denied the application. If the denial was as a result of the criminal records check conducted pursuant to section 311.41 of the Revised Code and if, pursuant to section 2923.127 of the Revised Code, the applicant challenges the criminal records check results using the appropriate challenge and review procedure specified in that section, the time for filing the appeal pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code and this division is tolled during the pendency of the request or the challenge and review.

(c) If the court in an appeal under section 119.12 of the Revised Code and division (D)(2)(b) of this section enters a judgment sustaining the sheriff’s refusal to grant to the applicant a concealed handgun license, the applicant may file a new application beginning one year after the judgment is entered. If the court enters a judgment in favor of the applicant, that judgment shall not restrict the authority of a sheriff to suspend or revoke the license pursuant to section 2923.128 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or to refuse to renew the license for any proper cause that may occur after the date the judgment is entered. In the appeal, the court shall have full power to dispose of all costs.

(3) If the sheriff with whom an application for a concealed handgun license was filed under this section becomes aware that the applicant has been arrested for or otherwise charged with an offense that would disqualify the applicant from holding the license, the sheriff shall suspend the processing of the application until the disposition of the case arising from the arrest or charge.

(4) If an applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense identified in division (D)(1)(e), (f), or (h) of this section or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act or violation identified in any of those divisions, and if a court has ordered the sealing or expungement of the records of that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication pursuant to sections 2151.355 to 2151.358, sections 2953.31 to 2953.35, or section 2953.39 of the Revised Code or the applicant has been relieved under operation of law or legal process from the disability imposed pursuant to section 2923.13 of the Revised Code relative to that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication, the sheriff with whom the application was submitted shall not consider the conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication in making a determination under division (D)(1) or (F) of this section or, in relation to an application for a concealed handgun license on a temporary emergency basis submitted under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, in making a determination under division (B)(2) of that section.

(5) If an applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a minor misdemeanor offense or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act or violation that is a minor misdemeanor offense, the sheriff with whom the application was submitted shall not consider the conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication in making a determination under division (D)(1) or (F) of this section or, in relation to an application for a concealed handgun license on a temporary basis submitted under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, in making a determination under division (B)(2) of that section.

(E) If a concealed handgun license issued under this section is lost or is destroyed, the licensee may obtain from the sheriff who issued that license a duplicate license upon the payment of a fee of fifteen dollars and the submission of an affidavit attesting to the loss or destruction of the license. The sheriff, in accordance with the procedures prescribed in section 109.731 of the Revised Code, shall place on the replacement license a combination of identifying numbers different from the combination on the license that is being replaced.

(F)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (F)(1)(b) of this section, a licensee who wishes to renew a concealed handgun license issued under this section may do so at any time before the expiration date of the license or at any time after the expiration date of the license by filing with the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or with the sheriff of an adjacent county, or in the case of an applicant who resides in another state with the sheriff of the county that issued the applicant’s previous concealed handgun license an application for renewal of the license obtained pursuant to division (D) of this section, a certification by the applicant that, subsequent to the issuance of the license, the applicant has reread the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force matters, and a nonrefundable license renewal fee in an amount determined pursuant to division (F)(4) of this section unless the fee is waived.

(b) A person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States or in service with the peace corps, volunteers in service to America, or the foreign service of the United States is exempt from the license requirements of this section for the period of the person’s active duty or service and for six months thereafter, provided the person was a licensee under this section at the time the person commenced the person’s active duty or service or had obtained a license while on active duty or service. The spouse or a dependent of any such person on active duty or in service also is exempt from the license requirements of this section for the period of the person’s active duty or service and for six months thereafter, provided the spouse or dependent was a licensee under this section at the time the person commenced the active duty or service or had obtained a license while the person was on active duty or service, and provided further that the person’s active duty or service resulted in the spouse or dependent relocating outside of this state during the period of the active duty or service. This division does not prevent such a person or the person’s spouse or dependent from making an application for the renewal of a concealed handgun license during the period of the person’s active duty or service.

(2) A sheriff shall accept a completed renewal application, the license renewal fee, and the information specified in division (F)(1) of this section at the times and in the manners described in division (I) of this section. Upon receipt of a completed renewal application, of certification that the applicant has reread the specified pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission, and of a license renewal fee unless the fee is waived, a sheriff, in the manner specified in section 311.41 of the Revised Code shall conduct or cause to be conducted the criminal records check and the incompetency records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code. The sheriff shall renew the license if the sheriff determines that the applicant continues to satisfy the requirements described in division (D)(1) of this section, except that the applicant is not required to meet the requirements of division (D)(1)(l) of this section. A renewed license shall expire five years after the date of issuance. A renewed license is subject to division (E) of this section and sections 2923.126 and 2923.128 of the Revised Code. A sheriff shall comply with divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section when the circumstances described in those divisions apply to a requested license renewal. If a sheriff denies the renewal of a concealed handgun license, the applicant may appeal the denial, or challenge the criminal record check results that were the basis of the denial if applicable, in the same manner as specified in division (D)(2)(b) of this section and in section 2923.127 of the Revised Code, regarding the denial of a license under this section.

(3) A renewal application submitted pursuant to division (F) of this section shall only require the licensee to list on the application form information and matters occurring since the date of the licensee’s last application for a license pursuant to division (B) or (F) of this section. A sheriff conducting the criminal records check and the incompetency records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code shall conduct the check only from the date of the licensee’s last application for a license pursuant to division (B) or (F) of this section through the date of the renewal application submitted pursuant to division (F) of this section.

(4) An applicant for a renewal concealed handgun license under this section shall submit to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides, or in the case of an applicant who resides in another state to the sheriff of the county that issued the applicant’s previous concealed handgun license, a nonrefundable license fee as described in either of the following:

(a) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for five or more years, a fee of fifty dollars;

(b) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for less than five years or who is not a resident of this state but who is employed in this state, a fee of fifty dollars plus the actual cost of having a background check performed by the federal bureau of investigation.

(5) The concealed handgun license of a licensee who is no longer a resident of this state or no longer employed in this state, as applicable, is valid until the date of expiration on the license, and the licensee is prohibited from renewing the concealed handgun license.

(G)(1) Each course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall provide to each person who takes the course, class, or program the web site address at which the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force matters may be found. Each such course, class, or program described in one of those divisions shall include at least eight hours of training in the safe handling and use of a firearm that shall include training, provided as described in division (G)(3) of this section, on all of the following:

(a) The ability to name, explain, and demonstrate the rules for safe handling of a handgun and proper storage practices for handguns and ammunition;

(b) The ability to demonstrate and explain how to handle ammunition in a safe manner;

(c) The ability to demonstrate the knowledge, skills, and attitude necessary to shoot a handgun in a safe manner;

(d) Gun handling training;

(e) A minimum of two hours of in-person training that consists of range time and live-fire training.

(2) To satisfactorily complete the course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section, the applicant shall pass a competency examination that shall include both of the following:

(a) A written section, provided as described in division (G)(3) of this section, on the ability to name and explain the rules for the safe handling of a handgun and proper storage practices for handguns and ammunition;

(b) An in-person physical demonstration of competence in the use of a handgun and in the rules for safe handling and storage of a handgun and a physical demonstration of the attitude necessary to shoot a handgun in a safe manner.

(3)(a) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the training specified in division (G)(1)(a) of this section shall be provided to the person receiving the training in person by an instructor. If the training specified in division (G)(1)(a) of this section is provided by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section, or it is provided by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(b), (c), or (e) of this section and the instructor is a qualified instructor certified by a national gun advocacy organization, the training so specified, other than the training that requires the person receiving the training to demonstrate handling abilities, may be provided online or as a combination of in-person and online training, as long as the online training includes an interactive component that regularly engages the person.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the written section of the competency examination specified in division (G)(2)(a) of this section shall be administered to the person taking the competency examination in person by an instructor. If the training specified in division (G)(1)(a) of this section is provided to the person receiving the training by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section, or it is provided by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(b), (c), or (e) of this section and the instructor is a qualified instructor certified by a national gun advocacy organization, the written section of the competency examination specified in division (G)(2)(a) of this section may be administered online, as long as the online training includes an interactive component that regularly engages the person.

(4) The competency certification described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall be dated and shall attest that the course, class, or program the applicant successfully completed met the requirements described in division (G)(1) of this section and that the applicant passed the competency examination described in division (G)(2) of this section.

(H) Upon deciding to issue a concealed handgun license, deciding to issue a replacement concealed handgun license, or deciding to renew a concealed handgun license pursuant to this section, and before actually issuing or renewing the license, the sheriff shall make available through the law enforcement automated data system all information contained on the license. If the license subsequently is suspended under division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, revoked pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, or lost or destroyed, the sheriff also shall make available through the law enforcement automated data system a notation of that fact. The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall ensure that the law enforcement automated data system is so configured as to permit the transmission through the system of the information specified in this division.

(I)(1) A sheriff shall accept a completed application form or renewal application, and the fee, items, materials, and information specified in divisions (B)(1) to (5) or division (F) of this section, whichever is applicable, and shall provide an application form or renewal application to any person during at least fifteen hours a week and shall provide the web site address at which a printable version of the application form that can be downloaded and the pamphlet described in division (B) of section 109.731 of the Revised Code may be found at any time, upon request. The sheriff shall post notice of the hours during which the sheriff is available to accept or provide the information described in this division.

(2) A sheriff shall transmit a notice to the attorney general, in a manner determined by the attorney general, every time a license is issued that waived payment under division (B)(1)(c) of this section for an applicant who is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States or has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States. The attorney general shall monitor and inform sheriffs issuing licenses under this section when the amount of license fee payments waived and transmitted to the attorney general reach one million five hundred thousand dollars each year. Once a sheriff is informed that the payments waived reached one million five hundred thousand dollars in any year, a sheriff shall no longer waive payment of a license fee for an applicant who is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States or has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States for the remainder of that year.

2923.13 Having weapons while under disability

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) Unless relieved from disability under operation of law or legal process, no person shall knowingly acquire, have, carry, or use any firearm or dangerous ordnance, if any of the following apply:

(1) The person is a fugitive from justice.

(2) The person is under indictment for or has been convicted of any felony offense of violence or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for the commission of an offense that, if committed by an adult, would have been a felony offense of violence.

(3) The person is under indictment for or has been convicted of any felony offense involving the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, distribution, or trafficking in any drug of abuse or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for the commission of an offense that, if committed by an adult, would have been a felony offense involving the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, distribution, or trafficking in any drug of abuse.

(4) The person has a drug dependency, is in danger of drug dependence, or has chronic alcoholism.

(5) The person is under adjudication of mental incompetence, has been committed to a mental institution, has been found by a court to be a person with a mental illness subject to court order, or is an involuntary patient other than one who is a patient only for purposes of observation. As used in this division, “person with a mental illness subject to court order” and “patient” have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of having weapons while under disability, a felony of the third degree.

(C) For the purposes of this section, “under operation of law or legal process” shall not itself include mere completion, termination, or expiration of a sentence imposed as a result of a criminal conviction.

Chapter 2933. Peace Warrants; Search Warrants

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Interception of Communications; Warrants

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2933.52 Prohibition against interception of communications; exceptions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No person purposely shall do any of the following:

(1) Intercept, attempt to intercept, or procure another person to intercept or attempt to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication;

(2) Use, attempt to use, or procure another person to use or attempt to use an interception device to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication, if either of the following applies:

(a) The interception device is affixed to, or otherwise transmits a signal through, a wire, cable, satellite, microwave, or other similar method of connection used in wire communications;

(b) The interception device transmits communications by radio, or interferes with the transmission of communications by radio.

(3) Use, or attempt to use, the contents of a wire, oral, or electronic communication, knowing or having reason to know that the contents were obtained through the interception of a wire, oral, or electronic communication in violation of sections 2933.51 to 2933.66 of the Revised Code.

(B) This section does not apply to any of the following:

(1) The interception, disclosure, or use of the contents, or evidence derived from the contents, of an oral, wire, or electronic communication that is obtained through the use of an interception warrant issued pursuant to sections 2933.53 to 2933.56 of the Revised Code, that is obtained pursuant to an oral approval for an interception granted pursuant to section 2933.57 of the Revised Code, or that is obtained pursuant to an order that is issued or an interception that is made in accordance with section 802 of the “Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968,” 82 Stat. 237, 254, 18 U.S.C. 2510 to 2520 (1968), as amended, the “Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986,” 100 Stat. 1848-1857, 18 2510-2521 [sic.] (1986), as amended, or the “Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act,” 92 Stat. 1783, 50 U.S.C. 1801.11 (1978), as amended;

(2) An operator of a switchboard, or an officer, employee, or agent of a provider of wire or electronic communication service, whose facilities are used in the transmission of a wire or electronic communication to intercept, disclose, or use that communication in the normal course of employment while engaged in an activity that is necessary to the rendition of service or to the protection of the rights or property of the provider of that service, except that a provider of wire or electronic communication service to the public shall not utilize service observing or random monitoring except for mechanical or service quality control checks;

(3) A law enforcement officer who intercepts a wire, oral, or electronic communication, if the officer is a party to the communication or if one of the parties to the communication has given prior consent to the interception by the officer;

(4) A person who is not a law enforcement officer and who intercepts a wire, oral, or electronic communication, if the person is a party to the communication or if one of the parties to the communication has given the person prior consent to the interception, and if the communication is not intercepted for the purpose of committing a criminal offense or tortious act in violation of the laws or Constitution of the United States or this state or for the purpose of committing any other injurious act;

(5) An officer, employee, or agent of a communications common carrier providing information, facilities, or technical assistance to an investigative officer who is authorized to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication pursuant to sections 2933.51 to 2933.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The use of a pen register in accordance with federal or state law;

(7) The use of a trap and trace device in accordance with federal or state law;

(8) A police, fire, or emergency communications system to intercept wire communications coming into and going out of the communications system of a police department, fire department, or emergency center, if both of the following apply:

(a) The telephone, instrument, equipment, or facility is limited to the exclusive use of the communication system for administrative purposes;

(b) At least one telephone, instrument, equipment, or facility that is not subject to interception is made available for public use at each police department, fire department, or emergency center.

(9) The interception or accessing of an electronic communication made through an electronic communication system that is configured so that the electronic communication is readily accessible to the general public.

(10) The interception of a radio communication that is transmitted by any of the following:

(a) A station for the use of the general public;

(b) Governmental, law enforcement, civil defense, private land mobile, or public safety communications system, including a police or fire system, that is readily accessible to the general public;

(c) A station operating on an authorized frequency within the bands allocated to the amateur, citizen band, or general mobile radio services;

(d) A marine or aeronautical communications system.

(11) The interception of a radio communication that relates to a ship, aircraft, vehicle, or person in distress.

(12) The interception of a wire or electronic communication the transmission of which is causing harmful interference to a lawfully operating station or consumer electronic equipment, to the extent necessary to identify the source of that interference.

(13) Other users of the same frequency to intercept a radio communication made through a system that utilizes frequencies monitored by individuals engaged in the provision or the use of that system, if the communication is not scrambled or encrypted.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications, a felony of the fourth degree.

Chapter 2935. Arrest, Citation, and Disposition Alternatives

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Arrest

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2935.03 Arrest and detention until warrant can be obtained

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code, veterans’ home police officer appointed under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the transportation security administration of the United States department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, university, veterans’ home operated under Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.

(2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division (A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the peace officer’s, state fire marshal law enforcement officer’s, or individual’s territorial jurisdiction, a law of this state.

(3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at arms’s or assistant sergeant at arms’s territorial jurisdiction specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.

(4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at arms’s or assistant sergeant at arms’s territorial jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.

(B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, university, veterans’ home operated under Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.

(2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the violation:

(a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or aggravated trespass;

(b) A written statement by the administrator of the interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 5119.71 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility under an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;

(c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code.

(3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this section has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following occurs:

(i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order against the person who executes the statement or against a child of the person who executes the statement.

(ii) No written statement of the type described in division (B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, based upon the peace officer’s own knowledge and observation of the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection order or based upon any other information, including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty of committing the offense.

(iii) No written statement of the type described in division (B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order.

(b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section until a warrant can be obtained.

If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or household members have committed the offense against each other, it is the preferred course of action in this state that the officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household member who committed the offense and whom the officer has reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any other family or household member who committed the offense and whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who committed the offense and whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.

(c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division (B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement of the officer’s reasons for not arresting and detaining that person until a warrant can be obtained.

(d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this section which family or household member is the primary physical aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the following:

(i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the officer reasonably can ascertain;

(ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was caused by a person acting in self-defense;

(iii) Each person’s fear of physical harm, if any, resulting from the other person’s threatened use of force against any person or resulting from the other person’s use or history of the use of force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;

(iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the persons involved in the alleged offense.

(e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a complaint against the person who has committed the offense.

(ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order and if the victim of the offense does not cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and notwithstanding the victim’s failure to cooperate or the victim’s wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges and of all witnesses to that incident.

(f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the person will be taken subsequent to the person’s arrest or any possibility that the person’s arrest might cause, contribute to, or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any other detention facility.

(g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the arrest of the person.

(h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly weapon. For purposes of that section, the “underlying criminal offense” that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is applicable:

(i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;

(ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded.

(4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.

(C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.

(D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility described in division (A) of this section, township constable, police officer of a township or joint police district, state university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:

(1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after the offense is committed;

(2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer;

(3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.

(E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) or (B) of this section:

(1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the portion of any street or highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.

(2) A member of the police force of a township police district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a member of the police force of a joint police district created under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the township police district or joint police district, in the case of a member of a township police district or joint police district police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in the case of a township constable. However, if the population of the township that created the township police district served by the member’s police force, or the townships and municipal corporations that created the joint police district served by the member’s police force, or the township that is served by the township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the township police district or joint police district police force or the township constable may not make an arrest under division (E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part of the interstate system.

(3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is appointed, elected, or employed.

(4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division (A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement officer.

(F)(1) A department of mental health and addiction services special police officer or a department of developmental disabilities special police officer may arrest without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person found committing on the premises of any institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department a misdemeanor under a law of the state.

A department of mental health and addiction services special police officer or a department of developmental disabilities special police officer may arrest without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is found committing on the premises of any institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape from the premises of the institution.

(2)(a) If a department of mental health and addiction services special police officer or a department of developmental disabilities special police officer finds any person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code committing a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape from the premises of the institution, or if there is reasonable ground to believe that a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code has been committed that involves an escape from the premises of an institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health and addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities and if a department of mental health and addiction services special police officer or a department of developmental disabilities special police officer has reasonable cause to believe that a particular person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in the institution pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of the violation, the special police officer, outside of the premises of the institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for that violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a warrant can be obtained, if both of the following apply:

(i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after the offense is committed;

(ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code occurred.

(b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the execution of a written statement by the administrator of the institution in which a person had been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped from the premises of the institution in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the violation.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) A “department of mental health and addiction services special police officer” means a special police officer of the department of mental health and addiction services designated under section 5119.08 of the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer training commission under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic training program.

(2) A “department of developmental disabilities special police officer” means a special police officer of the department of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic training program.

(3) “Deadly weapon” has the same meaning as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Family or household member” has the same meaning as in section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Street” or “highway” has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) “Interstate system” has the same meaning as in section 5516.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) “Peace officer of the department of natural resources” means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest-fire investigator appointed pursuant to section 1503.09 of the Revised Code, a natural resources officer appointed pursuant to section 1501.24 of the Revised Code, or a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 1531.13 of the Revised Code.

(8) “Portion of any street or highway” means all lanes of the street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.

Chapter 2950. Sex Offenders

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

2950.01 Definitions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

As used in this chapter, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

(A) “Sexually oriented offense” means any of the following violations or offenses committed by a person, regardless of the person’s age:

(1) A violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, or 2907.323 of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of section 2907.04 of the Revised Code when the offender is less than four years older than the other person with whom the offender engaged in sexual conduct, the other person did not consent to the sexual conduct, and the offender previously has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, or 2907.04 of the Revised Code or a violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(3) A violation of section 2907.04 of the Revised Code when the offender is at least four years older than the other person with whom the offender engaged in sexual conduct or when the offender is less than four years older than the other person with whom the offender engaged in sexual conduct and the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, or 2907.04 of the Revised Code or a violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(4) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, or 2903.11 of the Revised Code when the violation was committed with a sexual motivation;

(5) A violation of division (A) of section 2903.04 of the Revised Code when the offender committed or attempted to commit the felony that is the basis of the violation with a sexual motivation;

(6) A violation of division (A)(3) of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code;

(7) A violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (5) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the offense is committed with a sexual motivation;

(8) A violation of division (A)(4) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code;

(9) A violation of division (B) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the victim of the offense is under eighteen years of age and the offender is not a parent of the victim of the offense;

(10) A violation of division (B) of section 2903.03, of division (B) of section 2905.02, of division (B) of section 2905.03, of division (B) of section 2905.05, or of division (B)(5) of section 2919.22 of the Revised Code;

(11) A violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code when either of the following applies:

(a) The violation is a violation of division (A)(1) of that section and the offender knowingly recruited, lured, enticed, isolated, harbored, transported, provided, obtained, or maintained, or knowingly attempted to recruit, lure, entice, isolate, harbor, transport, provide, obtain, or maintain, another person knowing that the person would be compelled to engage in sexual activity for hire, engage in a performance that was obscene, sexually oriented, or nudity oriented, or be a model or participant in the production of material that was obscene, sexually oriented, or nudity oriented.

(b) The violation is a violation of division (A)(2) of that section and the offender knowingly recruited, lured, enticed, isolated, harbored, transported, provided, obtained, or maintained, or knowingly attempted to recruit, lure, entice, isolate, harbor, transport, provide, obtain, or maintain a person who is less than eighteen years of age or is a person with a developmental disability whom the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe is a person with a developmental disability for any purpose listed in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (c) of that section.

(12) A violation of division (B)(4) of section 2907.09 of the Revised Code if the sentencing court classifies the offender as a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender relative to that offense pursuant to division (D) of that section;

(13) A violation of any former law of this state, any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States, any existing or former law applicable in a military court or in an Indian tribal court, or any existing or former law of any nation other than the United States that is or was substantially equivalent to any offense listed in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section;

(14) Any attempt to commit, conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing any offense listed in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), or (13) of this section.

(B)(1) “Sex offender” means, subject to division (B)(2) of this section, a person who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense.

(2) “Sex offender” does not include a person who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented offense if the offense involves consensual sexual conduct or consensual sexual contact and either of the following applies:

(a) The victim of the sexually oriented offense was eighteen years of age or older and at the time of the sexually oriented offense was not under the custodial authority of the person who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the sexually oriented offense.

(b) The victim of the offense was thirteen years of age or older, and the person who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the sexually oriented offense is not more than four years older than the victim.

(C) “Child-victim oriented offense” means any of the following violations or offenses committed by a person, regardless of the person’s age, when the victim is under eighteen years of age and is not a child of the person who commits the violation:

(1) A violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (5) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the violation is not included in division (A)(7) of this section;

(2) A violation of division (A) of section 2905.02, division (A) of section 2905.03, or division (A) of section 2905.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) A violation of any former law of this state, any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States, any existing or former law applicable in a military court or in an Indian tribal court, or any existing or former law of any nation other than the United States that is or was substantially equivalent to any offense listed in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section;

(4) Any attempt to commit, conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing any offense listed in division (C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(D) “Child-victim offender” means a person who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any child-victim oriented offense.

(E) “Tier I sex offender/child-victim offender” means any of the following:

(1) A sex offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, or has pleaded guilty to any of the following sexually oriented offenses:

(a) A violation of section 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.22, or 2907.32 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of section 2907.04 of the Revised Code when the offender is less than four years older than the other person with whom the offender engaged in sexual conduct, the other person did not consent to the sexual conduct, and the offender previously has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, or 2907.04 of the Revised Code or a violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(c) A violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (5) of section 2907.05 of the Revised Code;

(d) A violation of division (A)(3) of section 2907.323 of the Revised Code;

(e) A violation of division (A)(3) of section 2903.211, of division (B) of section 2905.03, or of division (B) of section 2905.05 of the Revised Code;

(f) A violation of division (B)(4) of section 2907.09 of the Revised Code if the sentencing court classifies the offender as a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender relative to that offense pursuant to division (D) of that section;

(g) A violation of any former law of this state, any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States, any existing or former law applicable in a military court or in an Indian tribal court, or any existing or former law of any nation other than the United States, that is or was substantially equivalent to any offense listed in division (E)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section;

(h) Any attempt to commit, conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing any offense listed in division (E)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section.

(2) A child-victim offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, or has pleaded guilty to a child-victim oriented offense and who is not within either category of child-victim offender described in division (F)(2) or (G)(2) of this section.

(3) A sex offender who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense and who a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(4) A child-victim offender who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any child-victim oriented offense and who a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(F) “Tier II sex offender/child-victim offender” means any of the following:

(1) A sex offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, or has pleaded guilty to any of the following sexually oriented offenses:

(a) A violation of section 2907.21, 2907.321, or 2907.322 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of section 2907.04 of the Revised Code when the offender is at least four years older than the other person with whom the offender engaged in sexual conduct, or when the offender is less than four years older than the other person with whom the offender engaged in sexual conduct and the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2907.02, 2907.03, or 2907.04 of the Revised Code or former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(c) A violation of division (A)(4) of section 2907.05 or of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2907.323 of the Revised Code;

(d) A violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), or (5) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the offense is committed with a sexual motivation;

(e) A violation of division (A)(4) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the victim of the offense is eighteen years of age or older;

(f) A violation of division (B) of section 2905.02 or of division (B)(5) of section 2919.22 of the Revised Code;

(g) A violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code that is described in division (A)(11)(a) or (b) of this section;

(h) A violation of any former law of this state, any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States, any existing or former law applicable in a military court or in an Indian tribal court, or any existing or former law of any nation other than the United States that is or was substantially equivalent to any offense listed in division (F)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section;

(i) Any attempt to commit, conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing any offense listed in division (F)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section;

(j) Any sexually oriented offense that is committed after the sex offender previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense for which the offender was classified a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender.

(2) A child-victim offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, or has pleaded guilty to any child-victim oriented offense when the child-victim oriented offense is committed after the child-victim offender previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense for which the offender was classified a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender.

(3) A sex offender who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense and who a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(4) A child-victim offender who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any child-victim oriented offense and whom a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the current offense.

(5) A sex offender or child-victim offender who is not in any category of tier II sex offender/child-victim offender set forth in division (F)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section, who prior to January 1, 2008, was adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense, and who prior to that date was determined to be a habitual sex offender or determined to be a habitual child-victim offender, unless either of the following applies:

(a) The sex offender or child-victim offender is reclassified pursuant to section 2950.031 or 2950.032 of the Revised Code as a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender or a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(b) A juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies the child a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender or a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(G) “Tier III sex offender/child-victim offender” means any of the following:

(1) A sex offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, or has pleaded guilty to any of the following sexually oriented offenses:

(a) A violation of section 2907.02 or 2907.03 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of division (B) of section 2907.05 of the Revised Code;

(c) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, or 2903.11 of the Revised Code when the violation was committed with a sexual motivation;

(d) A violation of division (A) of section 2903.04 of the Revised Code when the offender committed or attempted to commit the felony that is the basis of the violation with a sexual motivation;

(e) A violation of division (A)(4) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the victim of the offense is under eighteen years of age;

(f) A violation of division (B) of section 2905.01 of the Revised Code when the victim of the offense is under eighteen years of age and the offender is not a parent of the victim of the offense;

(g) A violation of division (B) of section 2903.03 of the Revised Code;

(h) A violation of any former law of this state, any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States, any existing or former law applicable in a military court or in an Indian tribal court, or any existing or former law of any nation other than the United States that is or was substantially equivalent to any offense listed in division (G)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section;

(i) Any attempt to commit, conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing any offense listed in division (G)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section;

(j) Any sexually oriented offense that is committed after the sex offender previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense for which the offender was classified a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender or a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender.

(2) A child-victim offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, has been convicted of, or has pleaded guilty to any child-victim oriented offense when the child-victim oriented offense is committed after the child-victim offender previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense for which the offender was classified a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender or a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender.

(3) A sex offender who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any sexually oriented offense and who a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(4) A child-victim offender who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any child-victim oriented offense and whom a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the current offense.

(5) A sex offender or child-victim offender who is not in any category of tier III sex offender/child-victim offender set forth in division (G)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section, who prior to January 1, 2008, was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense or was adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense and classified a juvenile offender registrant, and who prior to that date was adjudicated a sexual predator or adjudicated a child-victim predator, unless either of the following applies:

(a) The sex offender or child-victim offender is reclassified pursuant to section 2950.031 or 2950.032 of the Revised Code as a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender or a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(b) The sex offender or child-victim offender is a delinquent child, and a juvenile court, pursuant to section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, or 2152.85 of the Revised Code, classifies the child a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender or a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense.

(6) A sex offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, was convicted of, or pleaded guilty to a sexually oriented offense, if the sexually oriented offense and the circumstances in which it was committed are such that division (F) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code automatically classifies the offender as a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender;

(7) A sex offender or child-victim offender who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, or was adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented offense or child-victim offense in another state, in a federal court, military court, or Indian tribal court, or in a court in any nation other than the United States if both of the following apply:

(a) Under the law of the jurisdiction in which the offender was convicted or pleaded guilty or the delinquent child was adjudicated, the offender or delinquent child is in a category substantially equivalent to a category of tier III sex offender/child-victim offender described in division (G)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section.

(b) Subsequent to the conviction, plea of guilty, or adjudication in the other jurisdiction, the offender or delinquent child resides, has temporary domicile, attends school or an institution of higher education, is employed, or intends to reside in this state in any manner and for any period of time that subjects the offender or delinquent child to a duty to register or provide notice of intent to reside under section 2950.04 or 2950.041 of the Revised Code.

(H) “Confinement” includes, but is not limited to, a community residential sanction imposed pursuant to section 2929.16 or 2929.26 of the Revised Code.

(I) “Prosecutor” has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

(J) “Supervised release” means a release of an offender from a prison term, a term of imprisonment, or another type of confinement that satisfies either of the following conditions:

(1) The release is on parole, a conditional pardon, under a community control sanction, under transitional control, or under a post-release control sanction, and it requires the person to report to or be supervised by a parole officer, probation officer, field officer, or another type of supervising officer.

(2) The release is any type of release that is not described in division (J)(1) of this section and that requires the person to report to or be supervised by a probation officer, a parole officer, a field officer, or another type of supervising officer.

(K) “Sexually violent predator specification,” “sexually violent predator,” “sexually violent offense,” “sexual motivation specification,” “designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense,” and “violent sex offense” have the same meanings as in section 2971.01 of the Revised Code.

(L) “Post-release control sanction” and “transitional control” have the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.

(M) “Juvenile offender registrant” means a person who is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing on or after January 1, 2002, a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented offense, who is fourteen years of age or older at the time of committing the offense, and who a juvenile court judge, pursuant to an order issued under section 2152.82, 2152.83, 2152.84, 2152.85, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, classifies a juvenile offender registrant and specifies has a duty to comply with sections 2950.04, 2950.041, 2950.05, and 2950.06 of the Revised Code. “Juvenile offender registrant” includes a person who prior to January 1, 2008, was a “juvenile offender registrant” under the definition of the term in existence prior to January 1, 2008, and a person who prior to July 31, 2003, was a “juvenile sex offender registrant” under the former definition of that former term.

(N) “Public registry-qualified juvenile offender registrant” means a person who is adjudicated a delinquent child and on whom a juvenile court has imposed a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence under section 2152.13 of the Revised Code before, on, or after January 1, 2008, and to whom all of the following apply:

(1) The person is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, attempting to commit, conspiring to commit, or complicity in committing one of the following acts:

(a) A violation of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code, division (B) of section 2907.05 of the Revised Code, or section 2907.03 of the Revised Code if the victim of the violation was less than twelve years of age;

(b) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, or 2905.01 of the Revised Code that was committed with a purpose to gratify the sexual needs or desires of the child;

(c) A violation of division (B) of section 2903.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) The person was fourteen, fifteen, sixteen, or seventeen years of age at the time of committing the act.

(3) A juvenile court judge, pursuant to an order issued under section 2152.86 of the Revised Code, classifies the person a juvenile offender registrant, specifies the person has a duty to comply with sections 2950.04, 2950.05, and 2950.06 of the Revised Code, and classifies the person a public registry-qualified juvenile offender registrant, and the classification of the person as a public registry-qualified juvenile offender registrant has not been terminated pursuant to division (D) of section 2152.86 of the Revised Code.

(O) “Secure facility” means any facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all of its entrances and exits are locked and under the exclusive control of its staff and to ensure that, because of that exclusive control, no person who is institutionalized or confined in the facility may leave the facility without permission or supervision.

(P) “Out-of-state juvenile offender registrant” means a person who is adjudicated a delinquent child in a court in another state, in a federal court, military court, or Indian tribal court, or in a court in any nation other than the United States for committing a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented offense, who on or after January 1, 2002, moves to and resides in this state or temporarily is domiciled in this state for more than five days, and who has a duty under section 2950.04 or 2950.041 of the Revised Code to register in this state and the duty to otherwise comply with that applicable section and sections 2950.05 and 2950.06 of the Revised Code. “Out-of-state juvenile offender registrant” includes a person who prior to January 1, 2008, was an “out-of-state juvenile offender registrant” under the definition of the term in existence prior to January 1, 2008, and a person who prior to July 31, 2003, was an “out-of-state juvenile sex offender registrant” under the former definition of that former term.

(Q) “Juvenile court judge” includes a magistrate to whom the juvenile court judge confers duties pursuant to division (A)(15) of section 2151.23 of the Revised Code.

(R) “Adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented offense” includes a child who receives a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence under section 2152.13 of the Revised Code for committing a sexually oriented offense.

(S) “School” and “school premises” have the same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(T) “Residential premises” means the building in which a residential unit is located and the grounds upon which that building stands, extending to the perimeter of the property. “Residential premises” includes any type of structure in which a residential unit is located, including, but not limited to, multi-unit buildings and mobile and manufactured homes.

(U) “Residential unit” means a dwelling unit for residential use and occupancy, and includes the structure or part of a structure that is used as a home, residence, or sleeping place by one person who maintains a household or two or more persons who maintain a common household. “Residential unit” does not include a halfway house or a community-based correctional facility.

(V) “Multi-unit building” means a building in which is located more than twelve residential units that have entry doors that open directly into the unit from a hallway that is shared with one or more other units. A residential unit is not considered located in a multi-unit building if the unit does not have an entry door that opens directly into the unit from a hallway that is shared with one or more other units or if the unit is in a building that is not a multi-unit building as described in this division.

(W) “Community control sanction” has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(X) “Halfway house” and “community-based correctional facility” have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(Y) A person is in a “restricted offender category” if both of the following apply with respect to the person:

(1) The person has been convicted of, is convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or pleads guilty to a sexually oriented offense where the victim was under the age of eighteen or a child-victim oriented offense.

(2) With respect to the offense described in division (Y)(1) of this section, one of the following applies:

(a) With respect to that offense, the person is a tier II sex offender/child-victim offender or is a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender who is subject to the duties imposed by sections 2950.04, 2950.041, 2950.05, and 2950.06 of the Revised Code.

(b) With respect to that offense if it was committed prior to January 1, 2008, under the version of Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code in effect prior to January 1, 2008, the person was adjudicated a sexual predator, was adjudicated a child-victim predator, was classified a habitual sex offender, or was classified a habitual child-victim sex offender.

(Z) “Adjudicated a sexual predator,” “adjudicated a child-victim predator,” “habitual sex offender,” and “habitual child-victim offender” have the meanings of those terms that applied to them under Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code prior to January 1, 2008.

Title XXXI. Domestic Relations - Children

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Chapter 3105. Divorce, Legal Separation, Annulment, Dissolution of Marriage

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3105.01. Grounds for divorce

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

The court of common pleas may grant divorces for the following causes:

(A) Either party had a husband or wife living at the time of the marriage from which the divorce is sought;

(B) Willful absence of the adverse party for one year;

(C) Adultery;

(D) Extreme cruelty;

(E) Fraudulent contract;

(F) Any gross neglect of duty;

(G) Habitual drunkenness;

(H) Imprisonment of the adverse party in a state or federal correctional institution at the time of filing the complaint;

(I) Procurement of a divorce outside this state, by a husband or wife, by virtue of which the party who procured it is released from the obligations of the marriage, while those obligations remain binding upon the other party;

(J) On the application of either party, when husband and wife have, without interruption for one year, lived separate and apart without cohabitation;

(K) Incompatibility, unless denied by either party.

A plea of res judicata or of recrimination with respect to any provision of this section does not bar either party from obtaining a divorce on this ground.

3105.03. Residency requirement and venue; jurisdiction of common pleas court

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

The plaintiff in actions for divorce and annulment shall have been a resident of the state at least six months immediately before filing the complaint. Actions for divorce and annulment shall be brought in the proper county for commencement of action pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court of common pleas shall hear and determine the case, whether the marriage took place, or the cause of divorce or annulment occurred, within or without the state.

Actions for legal separation shall be brought in the proper county for commencement of actions pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

3105.18. Spousal support

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section, “spousal support” means any payment or payments to be made to a spouse or former spouse, or to a third party for the benefit of a spouse or a former spouse, that is both for sustenance and for support of the spouse or former spouse. “Spousal support” does not include any payment made to a spouse or former spouse, or to a third party for the benefit of a spouse or former spouse, that is made as part of a division or distribution of property or a distributive award under section 3105.171 of the Revised Code.

(B) In divorce and legal separation proceedings, upon the request of either party and after the court determines the division or disbursement of property under section 3105.171 of the Revised Code, the court of common pleas may award reasonable spousal support to either party. During the pendency of any divorce, or legal separation proceeding, the court may award reasonable temporary spousal support to either party.

An award of spousal support may be allowed in real or personal property, or both, or by decreeing a sum of money, payable either in gross or by installments, from future income or otherwise, as the court considers equitable.

Any award of spousal support made under this section shall terminate upon the death of either party, unless the order containing the award expressly provides otherwise.

(C)(1) In determining whether spousal support is appropriate and reasonable, and in determining the nature, amount, and terms of payment, and duration of spousal support, which is payable either in gross or in installments, the court shall consider all of the following factors:

(a) The income of the parties, from all sources, including, but not limited to, income derived from property divided, disbursed, or distributed under section 3105.171 of the Revised Code;

(b) The relative earning abilities of the parties;

(c) The ages and the physical, mental, and emotional conditions of the parties;

(d) The retirement benefits of the parties;

(e) The duration of the marriage;

(f) The extent to which it would be inappropriate for a party, because that party will be custodian of a minor child of the marriage, to seek employment outside the home;

(g) The standard of living of the parties established during the marriage;

(h) The relative extent of education of the parties;

(i) The relative assets and liabilities of the parties, including but not limited to any court-ordered payments by the parties;

(j) The contribution of each party to the education, training, or earning ability of the other party, including, but not limited to, any party’s contribution to the acquisition of a professional degree of the other party;

(k) The time and expense necessary for the spouse who is seeking spousal support to acquire education, training, or job experience so that the spouse will be qualified to obtain appropriate employment, provided the education, training, or job experience, and employment is, in fact, sought;

(l) The tax consequences, for each party, of an award of spousal support;

(m) The lost income production capacity of either party that resulted from that party’s marital responsibilities;

(n) Any other factor that the court expressly finds to be relevant and equitable.

(2) In determining whether spousal support is reasonable and in determining the amount and terms of payment of spousal support, each party shall be considered to have contributed equally to the production of marital income.

(D) In an action brought solely for an order for legal separation under section 3105.17 of the Revised Code, any continuing order for periodic payments of money entered pursuant to this section is subject to further order of the court upon changed circumstances of either party.

(E) If a continuing order for periodic payments of money as alimony is entered in a divorce or dissolution of marriage action that is determined on or after May 2, 1986, and before January 1, 1991, or if a continuing order for periodic payments of money as spousal support is entered in a divorce or dissolution of marriage action that is determined on or after January 1, 1991, the court that enters the decree of divorce or dissolution of marriage does not have jurisdiction to modify the amount or terms of the alimony or spousal support unless the court determines that the circumstances of either party have changed and unless one of the following applies:

(1) In the case of a divorce, the decree or a separation agreement of the parties to the divorce that is incorporated into the decree contains a provision specifically authorizing the court to modify the amount or terms of alimony or spousal support.

(2) In the case of a dissolution of marriage, the separation agreement that is approved by the court and incorporated into the decree contains a provision specifically authorizing the court to modify the amount or terms of alimony or spousal support.

(F)(1) For purposes of divisions (D) and (E) of this section and subject to division (F)(2) of this section, a change in the circumstances of a party includes, but is not limited to, any increase or involuntary decrease in the party’s wages, salary, bonuses, living expenses, or medical expenses, or other changed circumstances so long as both of the following apply:

(a) The change in circumstances is substantial and makes the existing award no longer reasonable and appropriate.

(b) The change in circumstances was not taken into account by the parties or the court as a basis for the existing award when it was established or last modified, whether or not the change in circumstances was forseeable.1

(2) In determining whether to modify an existing order for spousal support, the court shall consider any purpose expressed in the initial order or award and enforce any voluntary agreement of the parties. Absent an agreement of the parties, the court shall not modify the continuing jurisdiction of the court as contained in the original decree.

(G) If any person required to pay alimony under an order made or modified by a court on or after December 1, 1986, and before January 1, 1991, or any person required to pay spousal support under an order made or modified by a court on or after January 1, 1991, is found in contempt of court for failure to make alimony or spousal support payments under the order, the court that makes the finding, in addition to any other penalty or remedy imposed, shall assess all court costs arising out of the contempt proceeding against the person and shall require the person to pay any reasonable attorney’s fees of any adverse party, as determined by the court, that arose in relation to the act of contempt.

Chapter 3109. Children

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Parental Rights and Responsibilities

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3109.04 Court awarding parental rights and responsibilities; shared parenting; modifications; best interests of child; child's wishes

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) In any divorce, legal separation, or annulment proceeding and in any proceeding pertaining to the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child, upon hearing the testimony of either or both parents and considering any mediation report filed pursuant to section 3109.052 of the Revised Code and in accordance with sections 3127.01 to 3127.53 of the Revised Code, the court shall allocate the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the minor children of the marriage. Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, the court may allocate the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children in either of the following ways:

(1) If neither parent files a pleading or motion in accordance with division (G) of this section, if at least one parent files a pleading or motion under that division but no parent who filed a pleading or motion under that division also files a plan for shared parenting, or if at least one parent files both a pleading or motion and a shared parenting plan under that division but no plan for shared parenting is in the best interest of the children, the court, in a manner consistent with the best interest of the children, shall allocate the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children primarily to one of the parents, designate that parent as the residential parent and the legal custodian of the child, and divide between the parents the other rights and responsibilities for the care of the children, including, but not limited to, the responsibility to provide support for the children and the right of the parent who is not the residential parent to have continuing contact with the children.

(2) If at least one parent files a pleading or motion in accordance with division (G) of this section and a plan for shared parenting pursuant to that division and if a plan for shared parenting is in the best interest of the children and is approved by the court in accordance with division (D)(1) of this section, the court may allocate the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children to both parents and issue a shared parenting order requiring the parents to share all or some of the aspects of the physical and legal care of the children in accordance with the approved plan for shared parenting. If the court issues a shared parenting order under this division and it is necessary for the purpose of receiving public assistance, the court shall designate which one of the parents’ residences is to serve as the child’s home. The child support obligations of the parents under a shared parenting order issued under this division shall be determined in accordance with Chapters 3119., 3121., 3123., and 3125. of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) When making the allocation of the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children under this section in an original proceeding or in any proceeding for modification of a prior order of the court making the allocation, the court shall take into account that which would be in the best interest of the children. In determining the child’s best interest for purposes of making its allocation of the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child and for purposes of resolving any issues related to the making of that allocation, the court, in its discretion, may and, upon the request of either party, shall interview in chambers any or all of the involved children regarding their wishes and concerns with respect to the allocation.

(2) If the court interviews any child pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, all of the following apply:

(a) The court, in its discretion, may and, upon the motion of either parent, shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the child.

(b) The court first shall determine the reasoning ability of the child. If the court determines that the child does not have sufficient reasoning ability to express the child’s wishes and concern with respect to the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child, it shall not determine the child’s wishes and concerns with respect to the allocation. If the court determines that the child has sufficient reasoning ability to express the child’s wishes or concerns with respect to the allocation, it then shall determine whether, because of special circumstances, it would not be in the best interest of the child to determine the child’s wishes and concerns with respect to the allocation. If the court determines that, because of special circumstances, it would not be in the best interest of the child to determine the child’s wishes and concerns with respect to the allocation, it shall not determine the child’s wishes and concerns with respect to the allocation and shall enter its written findings of fact and opinion in the journal. If the court determines that it would be in the best interests of the child to determine the child’s wishes and concerns with respect to the allocation, it shall proceed to make that determination.

(c) The interview shall be conducted in chambers, and no person other than the child, the child’s attorney, the judge, any necessary court personnel, and, in the judge’s discretion, the attorney of each parent shall be permitted to be present in the chambers during the interview.

(3) No person shall obtain or attempt to obtain from a child a written or recorded statement or affidavit setting forth the child’s wishes and concerns regarding the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities concerning the child. No court, in determining the child’s best interest for purposes of making its allocation of the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child or for purposes of resolving any issues related to the making of that allocation, shall accept or consider a written or recorded statement or affidavit that purports to set forth the child’s wishes and concerns regarding those matters.

(C) Prior to trial, the court may cause an investigation to be made as to the character, family relations, past conduct, earning ability, and financial worth of each parent and may order the parents and their minor children to submit to medical, psychological, and psychiatric examinations. The report of the investigation and examinations shall be made available to either parent or the parent’s counsel of record not less than five days before trial, upon written request. The report shall be signed by the investigator, and the investigator shall be subject to cross-examination by either parent concerning the contents of the report. The court may tax as costs all or any part of the expenses for each investigation.

If the court determines that either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving any act that resulted in a child being a neglected child, that either parent previously has been determined to be the perpetrator of the neglectful act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is a neglected child, or that there is reason to believe that either parent has acted in a manner resulting in a child being a neglected child, the court shall consider that fact against naming that parent the residential parent and against granting a shared parenting decree. When the court allocates parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children or determines whether to grant shared parenting in any proceeding, it shall consider whether either parent or any member of the household of either parent has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code or a sexually oriented offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any sexually oriented offense or other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child. If the court determines that either parent has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code or a sexually oriented offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any sexually oriented offense or other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child, it may designate that parent as the residential parent and may issue a shared parenting decree or order only if it determines that it is in the best interest of the child to name that parent the residential parent or to issue a shared parenting decree or order and it makes specific written findings of fact to support its determination.

(D)(1)(a) Upon the filing of a pleading or motion by either parent or both parents, in accordance with division (G) of this section, requesting shared parenting and the filing of a shared parenting plan in accordance with that division, the court shall comply with division (D)(1)(a)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section, whichever is applicable:

(i) If both parents jointly make the request in their pleadings or jointly file the motion and also jointly file the plan, the court shall review the parents’ plan to determine if it is in the best interest of the children. If the court determines that the plan is in the best interest of the children, the court shall approve it. If the court determines that the plan or any part of the plan is not in the best interest of the children, the court shall require the parents to make appropriate changes to the plan to meet the court’s objections to it. If changes to the plan are made to meet the court’s objections, and if the new plan is in the best interest of the children, the court shall approve the plan. If changes to the plan are not made to meet the court’s objections, or if the parents attempt to make changes to the plan to meet the court’s objections, but the court determines that the new plan or any part of the new plan still is not in the best interest of the children, the court may reject the portion of the parents’ pleadings or deny their motion requesting shared parenting of the children and proceed as if the request in the pleadings or the motion had not been made. The court shall not approve a plan under this division unless it determines that the plan is in the best interest of the children.

(ii) If each parent makes a request in the parent’s pleadings or files a motion and each also files a separate plan, the court shall review each plan filed to determine if either is in the best interest of the children. If the court determines that one of the filed plans is in the best interest of the children, the court may approve the plan. If the court determines that neither filed plan is in the best interest of the children, the court may order each parent to submit appropriate changes to the parent’s plan or both of the filed plans to meet the court’s objections, or may select one of the filed plans and order each parent to submit appropriate changes to the selected plan to meet the court’s objections. If changes to the plan or plans are submitted to meet the court’s objections, and if any of the filed plans with the changes is in the best interest of the children, the court may approve the plan with the changes. If changes to the plan or plans are not submitted to meet the court’s objections, or if the parents submit changes to the plan or plans to meet the court’s objections but the court determines that none of the filed plans with the submitted changes is in the best interest of the children, the court may reject the portion of the parents’ pleadings or deny their motions requesting shared parenting of the children and proceed as if the requests in the pleadings or the motions had not been made. If the court approves a plan under this division, either as originally filed or with submitted changes, or if the court rejects the portion of the parents’ pleadings or denies their motions requesting shared parenting under this division and proceeds as if the requests in the pleadings or the motions had not been made, the court shall enter in the record of the case findings of fact and conclusions of law as to the reasons for the approval or the rejection or denial. Division (D)(1)(b) of this section applies in relation to the approval or disapproval of a plan under this division.

(iii) If each parent makes a request in the parent’s pleadings or files a motion but only one parent files a plan, or if only one parent makes a request in the parent’s pleadings or files a motion and also files a plan, the court in the best interest of the children may order the other parent to file a plan for shared parenting in accordance with division (G) of this section. The court shall review each plan filed to determine if any plan is in the best interest of the children. If the court determines that one of the filed plans is in the best interest of the children, the court may approve the plan. If the court determines that no filed plan is in the best interest of the children, the court may order each parent to submit appropriate changes to the parent’s plan or both of the filed plans to meet the court’s objections or may select one filed plan and order each parent to submit appropriate changes to the selected plan to meet the court’s objections. If changes to the plan or plans are submitted to meet the court’s objections, and if any of the filed plans with the changes is in the best interest of the children, the court may approve the plan with the changes. If changes to the plan or plans are not submitted to meet the court’s objections, or if the parents submit changes to the plan or plans to meet the court’s objections but the court determines that none of the filed plans with the submitted changes is in the best interest of the children, the court may reject the portion of the parents’ pleadings or deny the parents’ motion or reject the portion of the parents’ pleadings or deny their motions requesting shared parenting of the children and proceed as if the request or requests or the motion or motions had not been made. If the court approves a plan under this division, either as originally filed or with submitted changes, or if the court rejects the portion of the pleadings or denies the motion or motions requesting shared parenting under this division and proceeds as if the request or requests or the motion or motions had not been made, the court shall enter in the record of the case findings of fact and conclusions of law as to the reasons for the approval or the rejection or denial. Division (D)(1)(b) of this section applies in relation to the approval or disapproval of a plan under this division.

(b) The approval of a plan under division (D)(1)(a)(ii) or (iii) of this section is discretionary with the court. The court shall not approve more than one plan under either division and shall not approve a plan under either division unless it determines that the plan is in the best interest of the children. If the court, under either division, does not determine that any filed plan or any filed plan with submitted changes is in the best interest of the children, the court shall not approve any plan.

(c) Whenever possible, the court shall require that a shared parenting plan approved under division (D)(1)(a)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section ensure the opportunity for both parents to have frequent and continuing contact with the child, unless frequent and continuing contact with any parent would not be in the best interest of the child.

(d) If a court approves a shared parenting plan under division (D)(1)(a)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section, the approved plan shall be incorporated into a final shared parenting decree granting the parents the shared parenting of the children. Any final shared parenting decree shall be issued at the same time as and shall be appended to the final decree of dissolution, divorce, annulment, or legal separation arising out of the action out of which the question of the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children arose.

No provisional shared parenting decree shall be issued in relation to any shared parenting plan approved under division (D)(1)(a)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section. A final shared parenting decree issued under this division has immediate effect as a final decree on the date of its issuance, subject to modification or termination as authorized by this section.

(2) If the court finds, with respect to any child under eighteen years of age, that it is in the best interest of the child for neither parent to be designated the residential parent and legal custodian of the child, it may commit the child to a relative of the child or certify a copy of its findings, together with as much of the record and the further information, in narrative form or otherwise, that it considers necessary or as the juvenile court requests, to the juvenile court for further proceedings, and, upon the certification, the juvenile court has exclusive jurisdiction.

(E)(1)(a) The court shall not modify a prior decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children unless it finds, based on facts that have arisen since the prior decree or that were unknown to the court at the time of the prior decree, that a change has occurred in the circumstances of the child, the child’s residential parent, or either of the parents subject to a shared parenting decree, and that the modification is necessary to serve the best interest of the child. In applying these standards, the court shall retain the residential parent designated by the prior decree or the prior shared parenting decree, unless a modification is in the best interest of the child and one of the following applies:

(i) The residential parent agrees to a change in the residential parent or both parents under a shared parenting decree agree to a change in the designation of residential parent.

(ii) The child, with the consent of the residential parent or of both parents under a shared parenting decree, has been integrated into the family of the person seeking to become the residential parent.

(iii) The harm likely to be caused by a change of environment is outweighed by the advantages of the change of environment to the child.

(b) One or both of the parents under a prior decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children that is not a shared parenting decree may file a motion requesting that the prior decree be modified to give both parents shared rights and responsibilities for the care of the children. The motion shall include both a request for modification of the prior decree and a request for a shared parenting order that complies with division (G) of this section. Upon the filing of the motion, if the court determines that a modification of the prior decree is authorized under division (E)(1)(a) of this section, the court may modify the prior decree to grant a shared parenting order, provided that the court shall not modify the prior decree to grant a shared parenting order unless the court complies with divisions (A) and (D)(1) of this section and, in accordance with those divisions, approves the submitted shared parenting plan and determines that shared parenting would be in the best interest of the children.

(2) In addition to a modification authorized under division (E)(1) of this section:

(a) Both parents under a shared parenting decree jointly may modify the terms of the plan for shared parenting approved by the court and incorporated by it into the shared parenting decree. Modifications under this division may be made at any time. The modifications to the plan shall be filed jointly by both parents with the court, and the court shall include them in the plan, unless they are not in the best interest of the children. If the modifications are not in the best interests of the children, the court, in its discretion, may reject the modifications or make modifications to the proposed modifications or the plan that are in the best interest of the children. Modifications jointly submitted by both parents under a shared parenting decree shall be effective, either as originally filed or as modified by the court, upon their inclusion by the court in the plan. Modifications to the plan made by the court shall be effective upon their inclusion by the court in the plan.

(b) The court may modify the terms of the plan for shared parenting approved by the court and incorporated by it into the shared parenting decree upon its own motion at any time if the court determines that the modifications are in the best interest of the children or upon the request of one or both of the parents under the decree. Modifications under this division may be made at any time. The court shall not make any modification to the plan under this division, unless the modification is in the best interest of the children.

(c) The court may terminate a prior final shared parenting decree that includes a shared parenting plan approved under division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this section upon the request of one or both of the parents or whenever it determines that shared parenting is not in the best interest of the children. The court may terminate a prior final shared parenting decree that includes a shared parenting plan approved under division (D)(1)(a)(ii) or (iii) of this section if it determines, upon its own motion or upon the request of one or both parents, that shared parenting is not in the best interest of the children. If modification of the terms of the plan for shared parenting approved by the court and incorporated by it into the final shared parenting decree is attempted under division (E)(2)(a) of this section and the court rejects the modifications, it may terminate the final shared parenting decree if it determines that shared parenting is not in the best interest of the children.

(d) Upon the termination of a prior final shared parenting decree under division (E)(2)(c) of this section, the court shall proceed and issue a modified decree for the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children under the standards applicable under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section as if no decree for shared parenting had been granted and as if no request for shared parenting ever had been made.

(F)(1) In determining the best interest of a child pursuant to this section, whether on an original decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children or a modification of a decree allocating those rights and responsibilities, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to:

(a) The wishes of the child’s parents regarding the child’s care;

(b) If the court has interviewed the child in chambers pursuant to division (B) of this section regarding the child’s wishes and concerns as to the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities concerning the child, the wishes and concerns of the child, as expressed to the court;

(c) The child’s interaction and interrelationship with the child’s parents, siblings, and any other person who may significantly affect the child’s best interest;

(d) The child’s adjustment to the child’s home, school, and community;

(e) The mental and physical health of all persons involved in the situation;

(f) The parent more likely to honor and facilitate court-approved parenting time rights or visitation and companionship rights;

(g) Whether either parent has failed to make all child support payments, including all arrearages, that are required of that parent pursuant to a child support order under which that parent is an obligor;

(h) Whether either parent or any member of the household of either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving any act that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child; whether either parent, in a case in which a child has been adjudicated an abused child or a neglected child, previously has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive or neglectful act that is the basis of an adjudication; whether either parent or any member of the household of either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code or a sexually oriented offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the current proceeding; whether either parent or any member of the household of either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the current proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense; and whether there is reason to believe that either parent has acted in a manner resulting in a child being an abused child or a neglected child;

(i) Whether the residential parent or one of the parents subject to a shared parenting decree has continuously and willfully denied the other parent’s right to parenting time in accordance with an order of the court;

(j) Whether either parent has established a residence, or is planning to establish a residence, outside this state.

(2) In determining whether shared parenting is in the best interest of the children, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the factors enumerated in division (F)(1) of this section, the factors enumerated in section 3119.23 of the Revised Code, and all of the following factors:

(a) The ability of the parents to cooperate and make decisions jointly, with respect to the children;

(b) The ability of each parent to encourage the sharing of love, affection, and contact between the child and the other parent;

(c) Any history of, or potential for, child abuse, spouse abuse, other domestic violence, or parental kidnapping by either parent;

(d) The geographic proximity of the parents to each other, as the proximity relates to the practical considerations of shared parenting;

(e) The recommendation of the guardian ad litem of the child, if the child has a guardian ad litem.

(3) When allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, the court shall not give preference to a parent because of that parent’s financial status or condition.

(G) Either parent or both parents of any children may file a pleading or motion with the court requesting the court to grant both parents shared parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children in a proceeding held pursuant to division (A) of this section. If a pleading or motion requesting shared parenting is filed, the parent or parents filing the pleading or motion also shall file with the court a plan for the exercise of shared parenting by both parents. If each parent files a pleading or motion requesting shared parenting but only one parent files a plan or if only one parent files a pleading or motion requesting shared parenting and also files a plan, the other parent as ordered by the court shall file with the court a plan for the exercise of shared parenting by both parents. The plan for shared parenting shall be filed with the petition for dissolution of marriage, if the question of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children arises out of an action for dissolution of marriage, or, in other cases, at a time at least thirty days prior to the hearing on the issue of the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the children. A plan for shared parenting shall include provisions covering all factors that are relevant to the care of the children, including, but not limited to, provisions covering factors such as physical living arrangements, child support obligations, provision for the children’s medical and dental care, school placement, and the parent with which the children will be physically located during legal holidays, school holidays, and other days of special importance.

(H) If an appeal is taken from a decision of a court that grants or modifies a decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, the court of appeals shall give the case calendar priority and handle it expeditiously.

(I)(1) Upon receipt of an order for active military service in the uniformed services, a parent who is subject to an order allocating parental rights and responsibilities or in relation to whom an action to allocate parental rights and responsibilities is pending and who is ordered for active military service shall notify the other parent who is subject to the order or in relation to whom the case is pending of the order for active military service within three days of receiving the military service order.

(2) On receipt of the notice described in division (I)(1) of this section, either parent may apply to the court for a hearing to expedite an allocation or modification proceeding so that the court can issue an order before the parent’s active military service begins. The application shall include the date on which the active military service begins.

The court shall schedule a hearing upon receipt of the application and hold the hearing not later than thirty days after receipt of the application, except that the court shall give the case calendar priority and handle the case expeditiously if exigent circumstances exist in the case.

The court shall not modify a prior decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities unless the court determines that there has been a change in circumstances of the child, the child’s residential parent, or either of the parents subject to a shared parenting decree, and that modification is necessary to serve the best interest of the child. The court shall not find past, present, or possible future active military service in the uniformed services to constitute a change in circumstances justifying modification of a prior decree pursuant to division (E) of this section. The court shall make specific written findings of fact to support any modification under this division.

(3) Nothing in division (I) of this section shall prevent a court from issuing a temporary order allocating or modifying parental rights and responsibilities for the duration of the parent’s active military service. A temporary order shall specify whether the parent’s active military service is the basis of the order and shall provide for termination of the temporary order and resumption of the prior order within ten days after receipt of notice pursuant to division (I)(5) of this section, unless the other parent demonstrates that resumption of the prior order is not in the child’s best interest.

(4) At the request of a parent who is ordered for active military service in the uniformed services and who is a subject of a proceeding pertaining to a temporary order for the allocation or modification of parental rights and responsibilities, the court shall permit the parent to participate in the proceeding and present evidence by electronic means, including communication by telephone, video, or internet to the extent permitted by the rules of the supreme court of Ohio.

(5) A parent who is ordered for active military service in the uniformed services and who is a subject of a proceeding pertaining to the allocation or modification of parental rights and responsibilities shall provide written notice to the court, child support enforcement agency, and the other parent of the date of termination of the parent’s active military service not later than thirty days after the date on which the service ends.

(J) As used in this section:

(1) “Abused child” has the same meaning as in section 2151.031 of the Revised Code.

(2) “Active military service” means service by a member of the uniformed services in compliance with military orders to report for combat operations, contingency operations, peacekeeping operations, a remote tour of duty, or other active service for which the member is required to report unaccompanied by any family member, including any period of illness, recovery from injury, leave, or other lawful absence during that operation, duty, or service.

(3) “Neglected child” has the same meaning as in section 2151.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) “Sexually oriented offense” has the same meaning as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) “Uniformed services” means the United States armed forces, the army national guard, and the air national guard or any reserve component thereof, or the commissioned corps of the United States public health service.

(K) As used in the Revised Code, “shared parenting” means that the parents share, in the manner set forth in the plan for shared parenting that is approved by the court under division (D)(1) and described in division (L)(6) of this section, all or some of the aspects of physical and legal care of their children.

(L) For purposes of the Revised Code:

(1) A parent who is granted the care, custody, and control of a child under an order that was issued pursuant to this section prior to April 11, 1991, and that does not provide for shared parenting has “custody of the child” and “care, custody, and control of the child” under the order, and is the “residential parent,” the “residential parent and legal custodian,” or the “custodial parent” of the child under the order.

(2) A parent who primarily is allocated the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child and who is designated as the residential parent and legal custodian of the child under an order that is issued pursuant to this section on or after April 11, 1991, and that does not provide for shared parenting has “custody of the child” and “care, custody, and control of the child” under the order, and is the “residential parent,” the “residential parent and legal custodian,” or the “custodial parent” of the child under the order.

(3) A parent who is not granted custody of a child under an order that was issued pursuant to this section prior to April 11, 1991, and that does not provide for shared parenting is the “parent who is not the residential parent,” the “parent who is not the residential parent and legal custodian,” or the “noncustodial parent” of the child under the order.

(4) A parent who is not primarily allocated the parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child and who is not designated as the residential parent and legal custodian of the child under an order that is issued pursuant to this section on or after April 11, 1991, and that does not provide for shared parenting is the “parent who is not the residential parent,” the “parent who is not the residential parent and legal custodian,” or the “noncustodial parent” of the child under the order.

(5) Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, if an order is issued by a court pursuant to this section and the order provides for shared parenting of a child, both parents have “custody of the child” or “care, custody, and control of the child” under the order, to the extent and in the manner specified in the order.

(6) Unless the context clearly requires otherwise and except as otherwise provided in the order, if an order is issued by a court pursuant to this section and the order provides for shared parenting of a child, each parent, regardless of where the child is physically located or with whom the child is residing at a particular point in time, as specified in the order, is the “residential parent,” the “residential parent and legal custodian,” or the “custodial parent” of the child.

(7) Unless the context clearly requires otherwise and except as otherwise provided in the order, a designation in the order of a parent as the residential parent for the purpose of determining the school the child attends, as the custodial parent for purposes of claiming the child as a dependent pursuant to section 152(e) of the “Internal Revenue Code of 1986,” 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, or as the residential parent for purposes of receiving public assistance pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, does not affect the designation pursuant to division (L)(6) of this section of each parent as the “residential parent,” the “residential parent and legal custodian,” or the “custodial parent” of the child.

(M) The court shall require each parent of a child to file an affidavit attesting as to whether the parent, and the members of the parent’s household, have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses identified in divisions (C) and (F)(1)(h) of this section.

3109.041 Shared parenting modification to decree entered before specific authority in law

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) Parties to any custody decree issued pursuant to section 3109.04 of the Revised Code prior to April 11, 1991, may file a motion with the court that issued the decree requesting the issuance of a shared parenting decree in accordance with division (G) of section 3109.04 of the Revised Code. Upon the filing of the motion, the court shall determine whether to grant the parents shared rights and responsibilities for the care of the children in accordance with divisions (A), (D)(1), (E)(1), and (I) of section 3109.04 of the Revised Code.

(B) A custody decree issued pursuant to section 3109.04 of the Revised Code prior to April 11, 1991, that granted joint care, custody, and control of the children to the parents shall not be affected or invalidated by, and shall not be construed as being affected or invalidated by, the provisions of section 3109.04 of the Revised Code relative to the granting of a shared parenting decree or a decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children on and after April 11, 1991. The decree issued prior to April 11, 1991 shall remain in full force and effect, subject to modification or termination pursuant to section 3109.04 of the Revised Code as that section exists on and after April 11, 1991.

(C) As used in this section, “joint custody” and “joint care, custody, and control” have the same meaning as “shared parenting.”

3109.042 Designation of residential parent and legal custodian

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) An unmarried female who gives birth to a child is the sole residential parent and legal custodian of the child until a court of competent jurisdiction issues an order designating another person as the residential parent and legal custodian. A court designating the residential parent and legal custodian of a child described in this section shall treat the mother and father as standing upon an equality when making the designation.

(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, an unmarried female who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to rape or sexual battery and has been declared under section 3109.501 of the Revised Code to be the parent of a child born as a result of rape or sexual battery shall not be a residential parent and legal custodian of that child.

3109.051 Parenting time rights

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) If a divorce, dissolution, legal separation, or annulment proceeding involves a child and if the court has not issued a shared parenting decree, the court shall consider any mediation report filed pursuant to section 3109.052 of the Revised Code and, in accordance with division (C) of this section, shall make a just and reasonable order or decree permitting each parent who is not the residential parent to have parenting time with the child at the time and under the conditions that the court directs, unless the court determines that it would not be in the best interest of the child to permit that parent to have parenting time with the child and includes in the journal its findings of fact and conclusions of law. Whenever possible, the order or decree permitting the parenting time shall ensure the opportunity for both parents to have frequent and continuing contact with the child, unless frequent and continuing contact by either parent with the child would not be in the best interest of the child. The court shall include in its final decree a specific schedule of parenting time for that parent. Except as provided in division (E)(6) of section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, if the court, pursuant to this section, grants parenting time to a parent or companionship or visitation rights to any other person with respect to any child, it shall not require the public children services agency to provide supervision of or other services related to that parent’s exercise of parenting time or that person’s exercise of companionship or visitation rights with respect to the child. This section does not limit the power of a juvenile court pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code to issue orders with respect to children who are alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent children or to make dispositions of children who are adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent children or of a common pleas court to issue orders pursuant to section 3113.31 of the Revised Code.
 

(B)(1) In a divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, annulment, or child support proceeding that involves a child, the court may grant reasonable companionship or visitation rights to any grandparent, any person related to the child by consanguinity or affinity, or any other person other than a parent, if all of the following apply:
 

(a) The grandparent, relative, or other person files a motion with the court seeking companionship or visitation rights.
 

(b) The court determines that the grandparent, relative, or other person has an interest in the welfare of the child.
 

(c) The court determines that the granting of the companionship or visitation rights is in the best interest of the child.
 

(2) A motion may be filed under division (B)(1) of this section during the pendency of the divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, annulment, or child support proceeding or, if a motion was not filed at that time or was filed at that time and the circumstances in the case have changed, at any time after a decree or final order is issued in the case.
 

(C) When determining whether to grant parenting time rights to a parent pursuant to this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or to grant companionship or visitation rights to a grandparent, relative, or other person pursuant to this section or section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, when establishing a specific parenting time or visitation schedule, and when determining other parenting time matters under this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or visitation matters under this section or section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, the court shall consider any mediation report that is filed pursuant to section 3109.052 of the Revised Code and shall consider all other relevant factors, including, but not limited to, all of the factors listed in division (D) of this section. In considering the factors listed in division (D) of this section for purposes of determining whether to grant parenting time or visitation rights, establishing a specific parenting time or visitation schedule, determining other parenting time matters under this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or visitation matters under this section or under section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, and resolving any issues related to the making of any determination with respect to parenting time or visitation rights or the establishment of any specific parenting time or visitation schedule, the court, in its discretion, may interview in chambers any or all involved children regarding their wishes and concerns. If the court interviews any child concerning the child’s wishes and concerns regarding those parenting time or visitation matters, the interview shall be conducted in chambers, and no person other than the child, the child’s attorney, the judge, any necessary court personnel, and, in the judge’s discretion, the attorney of each parent shall be permitted to be present in the chambers during the interview. No person shall obtain or attempt to obtain from a child a written or recorded statement or affidavit setting forth the wishes and concerns of the child regarding those parenting time or visitation matters. A court, in considering the factors listed in division (D) of this section for purposes of determining whether to grant any parenting time or visitation rights, establishing a parenting time or visitation schedule, determining other parenting time matters under this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or visitation matters under this section or under section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, or resolving any issues related to the making of any determination with respect to parenting time or visitation rights or the establishment of any specific parenting time or visitation schedule, shall not accept or consider a written or recorded statement or affidavit that purports to set forth the child’s wishes or concerns regarding those parenting time or visitation matters.
 

(D) In determining whether to grant parenting time to a parent pursuant to this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or companionship or visitation rights to a grandparent, relative, or other person pursuant to this section or section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, in establishing a specific parenting time or visitation schedule, and in determining other parenting time matters under this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or visitation matters under this section or section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, the court shall consider all of the following factors:
 

(1) The prior interaction and interrelationships of the child with the child’s parents, siblings, and other persons related by consanguinity or affinity, and with the person who requested companionship or visitation if that person is not a parent, sibling, or relative of the child;
 

(2) The geographical location of the residence of each parent and the distance between those residences, and if the person is not a parent, the geographical location of that person’s residence and the distance between that person’s residence and the child’s residence;
 

(3) The child’s and parents’ available time, including, but not limited to, each parent’s employment schedule, the child’s school schedule, and the child’s and the parents’ holiday and vacation schedule;
 

(4) The age of the child;
 

(5) The child’s adjustment to home, school, and community;
 

(6) If the court has interviewed the child in chambers, pursuant to division (C) of this section, regarding the wishes and concerns of the child as to parenting time by the parent who is not the residential parent or companionship or visitation by the grandparent, relative, or other person who requested companionship or visitation, as to a specific parenting time or visitation schedule, or as to other parenting time or visitation matters, the wishes and concerns of the child, as expressed to the court;
 

(7) The health and safety of the child;
 

(8) The amount of time that will be available for the child to spend with siblings;
 

(9) The mental and physical health of all parties;
 

(10) Each parent’s willingness to reschedule missed parenting time and to facilitate the other parent’s parenting time rights, and with respect to a person who requested companionship or visitation, the willingness of that person to reschedule missed visitation;
 

(11) In relation to parenting time, whether either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving any act that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child; whether either parent, in a case in which a child has been adjudicated an abused child or a neglected child, previously has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive or neglectful act that is the basis of the adjudication; and whether there is reason to believe that either parent has acted in a manner resulting in a child being an abused child or a neglected child;
 

(12) In relation to requested companionship or visitation by a person other than a parent, whether the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving any act that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child; whether the person, in a case in which a child has been adjudicated an abused child or a neglected child, previously has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive or neglectful act that is the basis of the adjudication; whether either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the current proceeding; whether either parent previously has been convicted of an offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the current proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense; and whether there is reason to believe that the person has acted in a manner resulting in a child being an abused child or a neglected child;
 

(13) Whether the residential parent or one of the parents subject to a shared parenting decree has continuously and willfully denied the other parent’s right to parenting time in accordance with an order of the court;
 

(14) Whether either parent has established a residence or is planning to establish a residence outside this state;
 

(15) In relation to requested companionship or visitation by a person other than a parent, the wishes and concerns of the child’s parents, as expressed by them to the court;
 

(16) Any other factor in the best interest of the child.
 

(E) The remarriage of a residential parent of a child does not affect the authority of a court under this section to grant parenting time rights with respect to the child to the parent who is not the residential parent or to grant reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to the child to any grandparent, any person related by consanguinity or affinity, or any other person.
 

(F)(1) If the court, pursuant to division (A) of this section, denies parenting time to a parent who is not the residential parent or denies a motion for reasonable companionship or visitation rights filed under division (B) of this section and the parent or movant files a written request for findings of fact and conclusions of law, the court shall state in writing its findings of fact and conclusions of law in accordance with Civil Rule 52.
 

(2) On or before July 1, 1991, each court of common pleas, by rule, shall adopt standard parenting time guidelines. A court shall have discretion to deviate from its standard parenting time guidelines based upon factors set forth in division (D) of this section.
 

(G)(1) If the residential parent intends to move to a residence other than the residence specified in the parenting time order or decree of the court, the parent shall file a notice of intent to relocate with the court that issued the order or decree. Except as provided in divisions (G)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, the court shall send a copy of the notice to the parent who is not the residential parent. Upon receipt of the notice, the court, on its own motion or the motion of the parent who is not the residential parent, may schedule a hearing with notice to both parents to determine whether it is in the best interest of the child to revise the parenting time schedule for the child.
 

(2) When a court grants parenting time rights to a parent who is not the residential parent, the court shall determine whether that parent has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child. If the court determines that that parent has not been so convicted and has not been determined to be the perpetrator of an abusive act that is the basis of a child abuse adjudication, the court shall issue an order stating that a copy of any notice of relocation that is filed with the court pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section will be sent to the parent who is given the parenting time rights in accordance with division (G)(1) of this section.
 

If the court determines that the parent who is granted the parenting time rights has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child, it shall issue an order stating that that parent will not be given a copy of any notice of relocation that is filed with the court pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section unless the court determines that it is in the best interest of the children to give that parent a copy of the notice of relocation, issues an order stating that that parent will be given a copy of any notice of relocation filed pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, and issues specific written findings of fact in support of its determination.
 

(3) If a court, prior to April 11, 1991, issued an order granting parenting time rights to a parent who is not the residential parent and did not require the residential parent in that order to give the parent who is granted the parenting time rights notice of any change of address and if the residential parent files a notice of relocation pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, the court shall determine if the parent who is granted the parenting time rights has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child. If the court determines that the parent who is granted the parenting time rights has not been so convicted and has not been determined to be the perpetrator of an abusive act that is the basis of a child abuse adjudication, the court shall issue an order stating that a copy of any notice of relocation that is filed with the court pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section will be sent to the parent who is granted parenting time rights in accordance with division (G)(1) of this section.
 

If the court determines that the parent who is granted the parenting time rights has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child, it shall issue an order stating that that parent will not be given a copy of any notice of relocation that is filed with the court pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section unless the court determines that it is in the best interest of the children to give that parent a copy of the notice of relocation, issues an order stating that that parent will be given a copy of any notice of relocation filed pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, and issues specific written findings of fact in support of its determination.
 

(4) If a parent who is granted parenting time rights pursuant to this section or any other section of the Revised Code is authorized by an order issued pursuant to this section or any other court order to receive a copy of any notice of relocation that is filed pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section or pursuant to court order, if the residential parent intends to move to a residence other than the residence address specified in the parenting time order, and if the residential parent does not want the parent who is granted the parenting time rights to receive a copy of the relocation notice because the parent with parenting time rights has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child, the residential parent may file a motion with the court requesting that the parent who is granted the parenting time rights not receive a copy of any notice of relocation. Upon the filing of the motion, the court shall schedule a hearing on the motion and give both parents notice of the date, time, and location of the hearing. If the court determines that the parent who is granted the parenting time rights has been so convicted or has been determined to be the perpetrator of an abusive act that is the basis of a child abuse adjudication, the court shall issue an order stating that the parent who is granted the parenting time rights will not be given a copy of any notice of relocation that is filed with the court pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section or that the residential parent is no longer required to give that parent a copy of any notice of relocation unless the court determines that it is in the best interest of the children to give that parent a copy of the notice of relocation, issues an order stating that that parent will be given a copy of any notice of relocation filed pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, and issues specific written findings of fact in support of its determination. If it does not so find, it shall dismiss the motion.
 

(H)(1) Subject to section 3125.16 and division (F) of section 3319.321 of the Revised Code, a parent of a child who is not the residential parent of the child is entitled to access, under the same terms and conditions under which access is provided to the residential parent, to any record that is related to the child and to which the residential parent of the child legally is provided access, unless the court determines that it would not be in the best interest of the child for the parent who is not the residential parent to have access to the records under those same terms and conditions. If the court determines that the parent of a child who is not the residential parent should not have access to records related to the child under the same terms and conditions as provided for the residential parent, the court shall specify the terms and conditions under which the parent who is not the residential parent is to have access to those records, shall enter its written findings of facts and opinion in the journal, and shall issue an order containing the terms and conditions to both the residential parent and the parent of the child who is not the residential parent. The court shall include in every order issued pursuant to this division notice that any keeper of a record who knowingly fails to comply with the order or division (H) of this section is in contempt of court.
 

(2) Subject to section 3125.16 and division (F) of section 3319.321 of the Revised Code, subsequent to the issuance of an order under division (H)(1) of this section, the keeper of any record that is related to a particular child and to which the residential parent legally is provided access shall permit the parent of the child who is not the residential parent to have access to the record under the same terms and conditions under which access is provided to the residential parent, unless the residential parent has presented the keeper of the record with a copy of an order issued under division (H)(1) of this section that limits the terms and conditions under which the parent who is not the residential parent is to have access to records pertaining to the child and the order pertains to the record in question. If the residential parent presents the keeper of the record with a copy of that type of order, the keeper of the record shall permit the parent who is not the residential parent to have access to the record only in accordance with the most recent order that has been issued pursuant to division (H)(1) of this section and presented to the keeper by the residential parent or the parent who is not the residential parent. Any keeper of any record who knowingly fails to comply with division (H) of this section or with any order issued pursuant to division (H)(1) of this section is in contempt of court.
 

(3) The prosecuting attorney of any county may file a complaint with the court of common pleas of that county requesting the court to issue a protective order preventing the disclosure pursuant to division (H)(1) or (2) of this section of any confidential law enforcement investigatory record. The court shall schedule a hearing on the motion and give notice of the date, time, and location of the hearing to all parties.
 

(I) A court that issues a parenting time order or decree pursuant to this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code shall determine whether the parent granted the right of parenting time is to be permitted access, in accordance with section 5104.039 of the Revised Code, to any child care center that is, or that in the future may be, attended by the children with whom the right of parenting time is granted. Unless the court determines that the parent who is not the residential parent should not have access to the center to the same extent that the residential parent is granted access to the center, the parent who is not the residential parent and who is granted parenting time rights is entitled to access to the center to the same extent that the residential parent is granted access to the center. If the court determines that the parent who is not the residential parent should not have access to the center to the same extent that the residential parent is granted such access under section 5104.039 of the Revised Code, the court shall specify the terms and conditions under which the parent who is not the residential parent is to have access to the center, provided that the access shall not be greater than the access that is provided to the residential parent under section 5104.039 of the Revised Code, the court shall enter its written findings of fact and opinions in the journal, and the court shall include the terms and conditions of access in the parenting time order or decree.
 

(J)(1) Subject to division (F) of section 3319.321 of the Revised Code, when a court issues an order or decree allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child, the parent of the child who is not the residential parent of the child is entitled to access, under the same terms and conditions under which access is provided to the residential parent, to any student activity that is related to the child and to which the residential parent of the child legally is provided access, unless the court determines that it would not be in the best interest of the child to grant the parent who is not the residential parent access to the student activities under those same terms and conditions. If the court determines that the parent of the child who is not the residential parent should not have access to any student activity that is related to the child under the same terms and conditions as provided for the residential parent, the court shall specify the terms and conditions under which the parent who is not the residential parent is to have access to those student activities, shall enter its written findings of facts and opinion in the journal, and shall issue an order containing the terms and conditions to both the residential parent and the parent of the child who is not the residential parent. The court shall include in every order issued pursuant to this division notice that any school official or employee who knowingly fails to comply with the order or division (J) of this section is in contempt of court.
 

(2) Subject to division (F) of section 3319.321 of the Revised Code, subsequent to the issuance of an order under division (J)(1) of this section, all school officials and employees shall permit the parent of the child who is not the residential parent to have access to any student activity under the same terms and conditions under which access is provided to the residential parent of the child, unless the residential parent has presented the school official or employee, the board of education of the school, or the governing body of the chartered nonpublic school with a copy of an order issued under division (J)(1) of this section that limits the terms and conditions under which the parent who is not the residential parent is to have access to student activities related to the child and the order pertains to the student activity in question. If the residential parent presents the school official or employee, the board of education of the school, or the governing body of the chartered nonpublic school with a copy of that type of order, the school official or employee shall permit the parent who is not the residential parent to have access to the student activity only in accordance with the most recent order that has been issued pursuant to division (J)(1) of this section and presented to the school official or employee, the board of education of the school, or the governing body of the chartered nonpublic school by the residential parent or the parent who is not the residential parent. Any school official or employee who knowingly fails to comply with division (J) of this section or with any order issued pursuant to division (J)(1) of this section is in contempt of court.
 

(K) If any person is found in contempt of court for failing to comply with or interfering with any order or decree granting parenting time rights issued pursuant to this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or companionship or visitation rights issued pursuant to this section, section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, or any other provision of the Revised Code, the court that makes the finding, in addition to any other penalty or remedy imposed, shall assess all court costs arising out of the contempt proceeding against the person and require the person to pay any reasonable attorney’s fees of any adverse party, as determined by the court, that arose in relation to the act of contempt, and may award reasonable compensatory parenting time or visitation to the person whose right of parenting time or visitation was affected by the failure or interference if such compensatory parenting time or visitation is in the best interest of the child. Any compensatory parenting time or visitation awarded under this division shall be included in an order issued by the court and, to the extent possible, shall be governed by the same terms and conditions as was the parenting time or visitation that was affected by the failure or interference.
 

(L) Any parent who requests reasonable parenting time rights with respect to a child under this section or section 3109.12 of the Revised Code or any person who requests reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to a child under this section, section 3109.11 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code, or any other provision of the Revised Code may file a motion with the court requesting that it waive all or any part of the costs that may accrue in the proceedings. If the court determines that the movant is indigent and that the waiver is in the best interest of the child, the court, in its discretion, may waive payment of all or any part of the costs of those proceedings.
 

(M)(1) A parent who receives an order for active military service in the uniformed services and who is subject to a parenting time order may apply to the court for any of the following temporary orders for the period extending from the date of the parent’s departure to the date of return:
 

(a) An order delegating all or part of the parent’s parenting time with the child to a relative or to another person who has a close and substantial relationship with the child if the delegation is in the child’s best interest;
 

(b) An order that the other parent make the child reasonably available for parenting time with the parent when the parent is on leave from active military service;
 

(c) An order that the other parent facilitate contact, including telephone and electronic contact, between the parent and child while the parent is on active military service.
 

(2)(a) Upon receipt of an order for active military service, a parent who is subject to a parenting time order and seeks an order under division (M)(1) of this section shall notify the other parent who is subject to the parenting time order and apply to the court as soon as reasonably possible after receipt of the order for active military service. The application shall include the date on which the active military service begins.
 

(b) The court shall schedule a hearing upon receipt of an application under division (M) of this section and hold the hearing not later than thirty days after its receipt, except that the court shall give the case calendar priority and handle the case expeditiously if exigent circumstances exist in the case. No hearing shall be required if both parents agree to the terms of the requested temporary order and the court determines that the order is in the child’s best interest.
 

(c) In determining whether a delegation under division (M)(1)(a) of this section is in the child’s best interest, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including the factors set forth in division (D) of this section.
 

(d) An order delegating all or part of the parent’s parenting time pursuant to division (M)(1)(a) of this section does not create standing on behalf of the person to whom parenting time is delegated to assert visitation or companionship rights independent of the order.
 

(3) At the request of a parent who is ordered for active military service in the uniformed services and who is a subject of a proceeding pertaining to a parenting time order or pertaining to a request for companionship rights or visitation with a child, the court shall permit the parent to participate in the proceeding and present evidence by electronic means, including communication by telephone, video, or internet to the extent permitted by rules of the supreme court of Ohio.
 

(N) The juvenile court has exclusive jurisdiction to enter the orders in any case certified to it from another court.
 

(O) As used in this section:
 

(1) “Abused child” has the same meaning as in section 2151.031 of the Revised Code, and “neglected child” has the same meaning as in section 2151.03 of the Revised Code.
 

(2) “Active military service” and “uniformed services” have the same meanings as in section 3109.04 of the Revised Code.
 

(3) “Confidential law enforcement investigatory record” has the same meaning as in section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
 

(4) “Parenting time order” means an order establishing the amount of time that a child spends with the parent who is not the residential parent or the amount of time that the child is to be physically located with a parent under a shared parenting order.
 

(5) “Record” means any record, document, file, or other material that contains information directly related to a child, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
 

(a) Records maintained by public and nonpublic schools;
 

(b) Records maintained by facilities that provide child care, as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code, publicly funded child care, as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code, or pre-school services operated by or under the supervision of a school district board of education or a nonpublic school;
 

(c) Records maintained by hospitals, other facilities, or persons providing medical or surgical care or treatment for the child;
 

(d) Records maintained by agencies, departments, instrumentalities, or other entities of the state or any political subdivision of the state, other than a child support enforcement agency. Access to records maintained by a child support enforcement agency is governed by section 3125.16 of the Revised Code.

3109.052 Mediation order; report

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) If a proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child involves one or more children, if the parents of the children do not agree upon an appropriate allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of their children or do not agree upon a specific schedule of parenting time for their children, the court may order the parents to mediate their differences on those matters in accordance with mediation procedures adopted by the court by local rule. When the court determines whether mediation is appropriate in any proceeding, it shall consider whether either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, whether either parent previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, and whether either parent has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child. If either parent has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding, has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any other offense involving a victim who at the time of the commission of the offense was a member of the family or household that is the subject of the proceeding and caused physical harm to the victim in the commission of the offense, or has been determined to be the perpetrator of the abusive act that is the basis of an adjudication that a child is an abused child, the court may order mediation only if the court determines that it is in the best interests of the parties to order mediation and makes specific written findings of fact to support its determination.

If a court issues an order pursuant to this division requiring mediation, it also may order the parents to file a mediation report within a specified period of time and order the parents to pay the cost of mediation, unless either or both of the parents file a motion requesting that the court waive that requirement. Upon the filing of a motion requesting the waiver of that requirement, the court, for good cause shown, may waive the requirement that either or both parents pay the cost of mediation or may require one of the parents to pay the entire cost of mediation. Any mediation procedures adopted by local court rule for use under this division shall include, but are not limited to, provisions establishing qualifications for mediators who may be employed or used and provisions establishing standards for the conduct of the mediation.

(B) If a mediation order is issued under division (A) of this section and the order requires the parents to file a mediation report, the mediator and each parent who takes part in mediation in accordance with the order jointly shall file a report of the results of the mediation process with the court that issued the order under that division. A mediation report shall indicate only whether agreement has been reached on any of the issues that were the subject of the mediation, and, if agreement has been reached, the content and details of the agreement. No mediation report shall contain any background information concerning the mediation process or any information discussed or presented in the process. The court shall consider the mediation report when it allocates parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children under section 3109.04 of the Revised Code and when it establishes a specific schedule of parenting time under section 3109.051 of the Revised Code. The court is not bound by the mediation report and shall consider the best interest of the children when making that allocation or establishing the parenting time schedule.

(C) If a mediation order is issued under division (A) of this section, the mediator shall not be made a party to, and shall not be called as a witness or testify in, any action or proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought by or against either parent and that pertains to the mediation process, to any information discussed or presented in the mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the parents’ children, or to the awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children. The mediator shall not be made a party to, or be called as a witness or testify in, such an action or proceeding even if both parents give their prior consent to the mediator being made a party to or being called as a witness or to testify in the action or proceeding.

(D) Division (A) of this section does not apply to either of the following:

(1) Any proceeding, or the use of mediation in any proceeding that is not a proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child;

(2) The use of mediation in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of a child, in relation to issues other than the appropriate allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the parents’ children and other than a specific parenting time schedule for the parents’ children.

Parental Rights of Rape or Sexual Battery Offenders

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3109.50 Definitions

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

As used in sections 3109.501 to 3109.507 of the Revised Code:

(A) “Parental rights” means parental rights and responsibilities, parenting time, or any other similar right established by the laws of this state with respect to a child. “Parental rights” does not include the parental duty of support for a child.

(B) “Rape” means a violation of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code or similar law of another state.

(C) “Sexual battery” means a violation of section 2907.03 of the Revised Code or similar law of another state.

3109.501 Action by victim to establish offender as parent of child conceived as result of offense

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) Except as provided in division (C) and subject to division (D) of this section, a person who is the victim of rape or sexual battery for which a child was conceived as a result may bring an action to declare the person who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense to be the parent of the child conceived as a result of rape or sexual battery committed by the other person.

(B) In an action seeking a declaration described in division (A) of this section, a court may issue an order declaring that the other person is the parent of a child conceived as a result of rape or sexual battery committed by the other person if all of the following are established by clear and convincing evidence:

(1) The other person was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the rape or sexual battery.

(2) The person bringing the action was the victim of the rape or sexual battery.

(3) The child was conceived as a result of the rape or sexual battery.

(4) Both persons are the parents of the child established pursuant to genetic testing conducted in different places or at different times or as provided in Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code.

(C) A person to whom the following apply may seek a declaration described in division (A) of this section only pursuant to a proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, or annulment:

(1) The person is the victim of a rape or sexual battery for which a child was conceived as a result.

(2) The person is married to the person who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the rape or sexual battery.

(D) An action seeking a declaration under division (A) of this section shall be filed in a court with jurisdiction over juvenile matters if the parents of the child are not married and in a court with jurisdiction over domestic relations matters, pursuant to a proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, or annulment, if the parents of the child are married.

3109.504 Prohibition against order granting parental rights to offender; termination of order upon notice

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) No court shall issue an order granting parental rights with respect to a child to a person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to rape or sexual battery and has been declared, in an action or proceeding under section 3109.501 or 3109.505 of the Revised Code regarding that child, to be the parent of a child conceived as a result of rape or sexual battery committed by the person.

(B) On receipt of a notice under section 3109.503 of the Revised Code, a court that has issued an order granting parental rights regarding the person and child addressed in the notice shall terminate the order.

3109.506 Relative of offender may be granted only those rights consented to by other parent

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

A relative of a person whose parental rights with that person’s child have been terminated, denied, or limited pursuant to sections 3109.50 to 3109.505 of the Revised Code may be granted only those rights consented to by the other parent of the child.

3109.507 Order concerning offender’s parental rights may only be revoked or modified upon motion of victim; limitation of parental rights does not relieve debts

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) If a court issues an order under section 3109.501 of the Revised Code declaring a person to be the parent of a child conceived as a result of rape or sexual battery committed by the person, no court shall revoke or modify the order or the resulting denial, termination, or limitation of the person’s parental rights and the person’s relatives’ rights under sections 3109.50 to 3109.506 of the Revised Code, except upon motion of the victim of the rape or sexual battery requesting the revocation or modification. The motion shall be made in the court that issued the order under section 3109.501 of the Revised Code.

(B) The denial, termination, or limitation of parental rights under sections 3109.50 to 3109.506 of the Revised Code does not relieve the person of any debts owed to the other parent or the child prior to the denial, termination, or limitation.

Visitation Rights of Relatives

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3109.11 Visitation rights of grandparents and other relatives when parent deceased

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

If either the father or mother of an unmarried minor child is deceased, the court of common pleas of the county in which the minor child resides may grant the parents and other relatives of the deceased father or mother reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to the minor child during the child’s minority if the parent or other relative files a complaint requesting reasonable companionship or visitation rights and if the court determines that the granting of the companionship or visitation rights is in the best interest of the minor child. In determining whether to grant any person reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to any child, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the factors set forth in division (D) of section 3109.051 of the Revised Code. Divisions (C), (K), and (L) of section 3109.051 of the Revised Code apply to the determination of reasonable companionship or visitation rights under this section and to any order granting any such rights that is issued under this section.

The remarriage of the surviving parent of the child or the adoption of the child by the spouse of the surviving parent of the child does not affect the authority of the court under this section to grant reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to the child to a parent or other relative of the child’s deceased father or mother.

If the court denies a request for reasonable companionship or visitation rights made pursuant to this section and the complainant files a written request for findings of fact and conclusions of law, the court shall state in writing its findings of fact and conclusions of law in accordance with Civil Rule 52.

Except as provided in division (E)(6) of section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, if the court, pursuant to this section, grants any person companionship or visitation rights with respect to any child, it shall not require the public children services agency to provide supervision of or other services related to that person’s exercise of companionship or visitation rights with respect to the child. This section does not limit the power of a juvenile court pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code to issue orders with respect to children who are alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent children or to make dispositions of children who are adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent children or of a common pleas court to issue orders pursuant to section 3113.31 of the Revised Code.

3109.12 Visitation rights of grandparents and other relatives when child's mother unmarried

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) If a child is born to an unmarried woman, the parents of the woman and any relative of the woman may file a complaint requesting the court of common pleas of the county in which the child resides to grant them reasonable companionship or visitation rights with the child. If a child is born to an unmarried woman and if the father of the child has acknowledged the child and that acknowledgment has become final pursuant to section 2151.232, 3111.25, or 3111.821 of the Revised Code or has been determined in an action under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code to be the father of the child, the father may file a complaint requesting that the court of appropriate jurisdiction of the county in which the child resides grant him reasonable parenting time rights with the child and the parents of the father and any relative of the father may file a complaint requesting that the court grant them reasonable companionship or visitation rights with the child.

(B) The court may grant the parenting time rights or companionship or visitation rights requested under division (A) of this section, if it determines that the granting of the parenting time rights or companionship or visitation rights is in the best interest of the child. In determining whether to grant reasonable parenting time rights or reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to any child, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the factors set forth in division (D) of section 3109.051 of the Revised Code. Divisions (C), (K), and (L) of section 3109.051 of the Revised Code apply to the determination of reasonable parenting time rights or reasonable companionship or visitation rights under this section and to any order granting any such rights that is issued under this section.

The marriage or remarriage of the mother or father of a child does not affect the authority of the court under this section to grant the natural father reasonable parenting time rights or the parents or relatives of the natural father or the parents or relatives of the mother of the child reasonable companionship or visitation rights with respect to the child.

If the court denies a request for reasonable parenting time rights or reasonable companionship or visitation rights made pursuant to division (A) of this section and the complainant files a written request for findings of fact and conclusions of law, the court shall state in writing its findings of fact and conclusions of law in accordance with Civil Rule 52.

Except as provided in division (E)(6) of section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, if the court, pursuant to this section, grants parenting time rights or companionship or visitation rights with respect to any child, it shall not require the public children services agency to provide supervision of or other services related to that parent’s exercise of parenting time rights with the child or that person’s exercise of companionship or visitation rights with the child. This section does not limit the power of a juvenile court pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code to issue orders with respect to children who are alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent children or to make dispositions of children who are adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent children or of a common pleas court to issue orders pursuant to section 3113.31 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 3113. Neglect, Abandonment, or Domestic Violence

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Domestic Violence

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3113.31 Petitions; protection orders concerning domestic violence or sexually oriented offense; support orders; sanctions for violations; notification of law enforcement agencies and courts

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) As used in this section:

(1) “Domestic violence” means any of the following:

(a) The occurrence of one or more of the following acts against a family or household member:

(i) Attempting to cause or recklessly causing bodily injury;

(ii) Placing another person by the threat of force in fear of imminent serious physical harm or committing a violation of section 2903.211 or 2911.211 of the Revised Code;

(iii) Committing any act with respect to a child that would result in the child being an abused child, as defined in section 2151.031 of the Revised Code;

(iv) Committing a sexually oriented offense.

(b) The occurrence of one or more of the acts identified in divisions (A)(1)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section against a person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship.

(2) “Court” means the domestic relations division of the court of common pleas in counties that have a domestic relations division and the court of common pleas in counties that do not have a domestic relations division, or the juvenile division of the court of common pleas of the county in which the person to be protected by a protection order issued or a consent agreement approved under this section resides if the respondent is less than eighteen years of age.

(3) “Family or household member” means any of the following:

(a) Any of the following who is residing with or has resided with the respondent:

(i) A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the respondent;

(ii) A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the respondent, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the respondent;

(iii) A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the respondent, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the respondent.

(b) The natural parent of any child of whom the respondent is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

(4) “Person living as a spouse” means a person who is living or has lived with the respondent in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with the respondent, or who otherwise has cohabited with the respondent within five years prior to the date of the alleged occurrence of the act in question.

(5) “Victim advocate” means a person who provides support and assistance for a person who files a petition under this section.

(6) “Sexually oriented offense” has the same meaning as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) “Companion animal” has the same meaning as in section 959.131 of the Revised Code.

(8) “Dating relationship” means a relationship between individuals who have, or have had, a relationship of a romantic or intimate nature. “Dating relationship” does not include a casual acquaintanceship or ordinary fraternization in a business or social context.

(9) “Person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship” means an individual who, at the time of the conduct in question, is in a dating relationship with the respondent who is an adult or who, within the twelve months preceding the conduct in question, has had a dating relationship with the respondent who is an adult.

(B) The court has jurisdiction over all proceedings under this section. The petitioner’s right to relief under this section is not affected by the petitioner’s leaving the residence or household to avoid further domestic violence.

(C) A person may seek relief under this section on the person’s own behalf, or any parent or adult household member may seek relief under this section on behalf of any other family or household member, by filing a petition with the court. The petition shall contain or state:

(1) An allegation that the respondent engaged in domestic violence against a family or household member of the respondent or against a person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship, including a description of the nature and extent of the domestic violence;

(2) The relationship of the respondent to the petitioner, and to the victim if other than the petitioner;

(3) If the petition is for protection of a person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship, the facts upon which the court may conclude that a dating relationship existed between the person to be protected and the respondent;

(4) A request for relief under this section.

(D)(1) If a person who files a petition pursuant to this section requests an ex parte order, the court shall hold an ex parte hearing on the same day that the petition is filed. The court, for good cause shown at the ex parte hearing, may enter any temporary orders, with or without bond, including, but not limited to, an order described in division (E)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section, that the court finds necessary to protect the family or household member or the person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship from domestic violence. Immediate and present danger of domestic violence to the family or household member or to the person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship constitutes good cause for purposes of this section. Immediate and present danger includes, but is not limited to, situations in which the respondent has threatened the family or household member or person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship with bodily harm, in which the respondent has threatened the family or household member or person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship with a sexually oriented offense, or in which the respondent previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for an offense that constitutes domestic violence against the family or household member or person with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship.

(2)(a) If the court, after an ex parte hearing, issues an order described in division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section, the court shall schedule a full hearing for a date that is within seven court days after the ex parte hearing. If any other type of protection order that is authorized under division (E) of this section is issued by the court after an ex parte hearing, the court shall schedule a full hearing for a date that is within ten court days after the ex parte hearing. The court shall give the respondent notice of, and an opportunity to be heard at, the full hearing. The court shall hold the full hearing on the date scheduled under this division unless the court grants a continuance of the hearing in accordance with this division. Under any of the following circumstances or for any of the following reasons, the court may grant a continuance of the full hearing to a reasonable time determined by the court:

(i) Prior to the date scheduled for the full hearing under this division, the respondent has not been served with the petition filed pursuant to this section and notice of the full hearing.

(ii) The parties consent to the continuance.

(iii) The continuance is needed to allow a party to obtain counsel.

(iv) The continuance is needed for other good cause.

(b) An ex parte order issued under this section does not expire because of a failure to serve notice of the full hearing upon the respondent before the date set for the full hearing under division (D)(2)(a) of this section or because the court grants a continuance under that division.

(3) If a person who files a petition pursuant to this section does not request an ex parte order, or if a person requests an ex parte order but the court does not issue an ex parte order after an ex parte hearing, the court shall proceed as in a normal civil action and grant a full hearing on the matter.

(E)(1) After an ex parte or full hearing, the court may grant any protection order, with or without bond, or approve any consent agreement to bring about a cessation of domestic violence against the family or household members or persons with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship. The order or agreement may:

(a) Direct the respondent to refrain from abusing or from committing sexually oriented offenses against the family or household members or persons with whom the respondent is or was in a dating relationship;

(b) With respect to a petition involving family or household members, grant possession of the residence or household to the petitioner or other family or household member, to the exclusion of the respondent, by evicting the respondent, when the residence or household is owned or leased solely by the petitioner or other family or household member, or by ordering the respondent to vacate the premises, when the residence or household is jointly owned or leased by the respondent, and the petitioner or other family or household member;

(c) With respect to a petition involving family or household members, when the respondent has a duty to support the petitioner or other family or household member living in the residence or household and the respondent is the sole owner or lessee of the residence or household, grant possession of the residence or household to the petitioner or other family or household member, to the exclusion of the respondent, by ordering the respondent to vacate the premises, or, in the case of a consent agreement, allow the respondent to provide suitable, alternative housing;

(d) With respect to a petition involving family or household members, temporarily allocate parental rights and responsibilities for the care of, or establish temporary parenting time rights with regard to, minor children, if no other court has determined, or is determining, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the minor children or parenting time rights;

(e) With respect to a petition involving family or household members, require the respondent to maintain support, if the respondent customarily provides for or contributes to the support of the family or household member, or if the respondent has a duty to support the petitioner or family or household member;

(f) Require the respondent, petitioner, victim of domestic violence, or any combination of those persons, to seek counseling;

(g) Require the respondent to refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the petitioner or, with respect to a petition involving family or household members, a family or household member;

(h) Grant other relief that the court considers equitable and fair, including, but not limited to, ordering the respondent to permit the use of a motor vehicle by the petitioner or, with respect to a petition involving family or household members, other family or household members and the apportionment of household and family personal property;

(i) Require that the respondent not remove, damage, hide, harm, or dispose of any companion animal owned or possessed by the petitioner;

(j) Authorize the petitioner to remove a companion animal owned by the petitioner from the possession of the respondent;

(k) Require a wireless service transfer in accordance with sections 3113.45 to 3113.459 of the Revised Code.

(2) If a protection order has been issued pursuant to this section in a prior action involving the respondent and the petitioner or, with respect to a petition involving family or household members, one or more of the family or household members or victims, the court may include in a protection order that it issues a prohibition against the respondent returning to the residence or household. If it includes a prohibition against the respondent returning to the residence or household in the order, it also shall include in the order provisions of the type described in division (E)(7) of this section. This division does not preclude the court from including in a protection order or consent agreement, in circumstances other than those described in this division, a requirement that the respondent be evicted from or vacate the residence or household or refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the petitioner or, with respect to a petition involving family or household members, a family or household member, and, if the court includes any requirement of that type in an order or agreement, the court also shall include in the order provisions of the type described in division (E)(7) of this section.

(3)(a) Any protection order issued or consent agreement approved under this section shall be valid until a date certain, but not later than five years from the date of its issuance or approval, or not later than the date a respondent who is less than eighteen years of age attains nineteen years of age, unless modified or terminated as provided in division (E)(8) of this section.

(b) With respect to an order involving family or household members, subject to the limitation on the duration of an order or agreement set forth in division (E)(3)(a) of this section, any order under division (E)(1)(d) of this section shall terminate on the date that a court in an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, or legal separation brought by the petitioner or respondent issues an order allocating parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children or on the date that a juvenile court in an action brought by the petitioner or respondent issues an order awarding legal custody of minor children. Subject to the limitation on the duration of an order or agreement set forth in division (E)(3)(a) of this section, any order under division (E)(1)(e) of this section shall terminate on the date that a court in an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, or legal separation brought by the petitioner or respondent issues a support order or on the date that a juvenile court in an action brought by the petitioner or respondent issues a support order.

(c) Any protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to this section may be renewed in the same manner as the original order or agreement was issued or approved.

(4) A court may not issue a protection order that requires a petitioner to do or to refrain from doing an act that the court may require a respondent to do or to refrain from doing under division (E)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (g), or (h) of this section unless all of the following apply:

(a) The respondent files a separate petition for a protection order in accordance with this section.

(b) The petitioner is served notice of the respondent’s petition at least forty-eight hours before the court holds a hearing with respect to the respondent’s petition, or the petitioner waives the right to receive this notice.

(c) If the petitioner has requested an ex parte order pursuant to division (D) of this section, the court does not delay any hearing required by that division beyond the time specified in that division in order to consolidate the hearing with a hearing on the petition filed by the respondent.

(d) After a full hearing at which the respondent presents evidence in support of the request for a protection order and the petitioner is afforded an opportunity to defend against that evidence, the court determines that the petitioner has committed an act of domestic violence or has violated a temporary protection order issued pursuant to section 2919.26 of the Revised Code, that both the petitioner and the respondent acted primarily as aggressors, and that neither the petitioner nor the respondent acted primarily in self-defense.

(5) No protection order issued or consent agreement approved under this section shall in any manner affect title to any real property.

(6)(a) With respect to an order involving family or household members, if a petitioner, or the child of a petitioner, who obtains a protection order or consent agreement pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section or a temporary protection order pursuant to section 2919.26 of the Revised Code and is the subject of a parenting time order issued pursuant to section 3109.051 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code or a visitation or companionship order issued pursuant to section 3109.051, 3109.11, or 3109.12 of the Revised Code or division (E)(1)(d) of this section granting parenting time rights to the respondent, the court may require the public children services agency of the county in which the court is located to provide supervision of the respondent’s exercise of parenting time or visitation or companionship rights with respect to the child for a period not to exceed nine months, if the court makes the following findings of fact:

(i) The child is in danger from the respondent;

(ii) No other person or agency is available to provide the supervision.

(b) A court that requires an agency to provide supervision pursuant to division (E)(6)(a) of this section shall order the respondent to reimburse the agency for the cost of providing the supervision, if it determines that the respondent has sufficient income or resources to pay that cost.

(7)(a) If a protection order issued or consent agreement approved under this section includes a requirement that the respondent be evicted from or vacate the residence or household or refrain from entering the residence, school, business, or place of employment of the petitioner or, with respect to a petition involving family or household members, a family or household member, the order or agreement shall state clearly that the order or agreement cannot be waived or nullified by an invitation to the respondent from the petitioner or other family or household member to enter the residence, school, business, or place of employment or by the respondent’s entry into one of those places otherwise upon the consent of the petitioner or other family or household member.

(b) Division (E)(7)(a) of this section does not limit any discretion of a court to determine that a respondent charged with a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, with a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to that section, or with contempt of court, which charge is based on an alleged violation of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved under this section, did not commit the violation or was not in contempt of court.

(8)(a) The court may modify or terminate as provided in division (E)(8) of this section a protection order or consent agreement that was issued after a full hearing under this section. The court that issued the protection order or approved the consent agreement shall hear a motion for modification or termination of the protection order or consent agreement pursuant to division (E)(8) of this section.

(b) Either the petitioner or the respondent of the original protection order or consent agreement may bring a motion for modification or termination of a protection order or consent agreement that was issued or approved after a full hearing. The court shall require notice of the motion to be made as provided by the Rules of Civil Procedure. If the petitioner for the original protection order or consent agreement has requested that the petitioner’s address be kept confidential, the court shall not disclose the address to the respondent of the original protection order or consent agreement or any other person, except as otherwise required by law. The moving party has the burden of proof to show, by a preponderance of the evidence, that modification or termination of the protection order or consent agreement is appropriate because either the protection order or consent agreement is no longer needed or because the terms of the original protection order or consent agreement are no longer appropriate.

(c) In considering whether to modify or terminate a protection order or consent agreement issued or approved under this section, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) Whether the petitioner consents to modification or termination of the protection order or consent agreement;

(ii) Whether the petitioner fears the respondent;

(iii) The current nature of the relationship between the petitioner and the respondent;

(iv) The circumstances of the petitioner and respondent, including the relative proximity of the petitioner’s and respondent’s workplaces and residences and whether the petitioner and respondent have minor children together;

(v) Whether the respondent has complied with the terms and conditions of the original protection order or consent agreement;

(vi) Whether the respondent has a continuing involvement with illegal drugs or alcohol;

(vii) Whether the respondent has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for an offense of violence since the issuance of the protection order or approval of the consent agreement;

(viii) Whether any other protection orders, consent agreements, restraining orders, or no contact orders have been issued against the respondent pursuant to this section, section 2919.26 of the Revised Code, any other provision of state law, or the law of any other state;

(ix) Whether the respondent has participated in any domestic violence treatment, intervention program, or other counseling addressing domestic violence and whether the respondent has completed the treatment, program, or counseling;

(x) The time that has elapsed since the protection order was issued or since the consent agreement was approved;

(xi) The age and health of the respondent;

(xii) When the last incident of abuse, threat of harm, or commission of a sexually oriented offense occurred or other relevant information concerning the safety and protection of the petitioner or other protected parties.

(d) If a protection order or consent agreement is modified or terminated as provided in division (E)(8) of this section, the court shall issue copies of the modified or terminated order or agreement as provided in division (F) of this section. A petitioner may also provide notice of the modification or termination to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county other than the county in which the order or agreement is modified or terminated as provided in division (N) of this section.

(e) If the respondent moves for modification or termination of a protection order or consent agreement pursuant to this section and the court denies the motion, the court may assess costs against the respondent for the filing of the motion.

(9) Any protection order issued or any consent agreement approved pursuant to this section shall include a provision that the court will automatically seal all of the records of the proceeding in which the order is issued or agreement approved on the date the respondent attains the age of nineteen years unless the petitioner provides the court with evidence that the respondent has not complied with all of the terms of the protection order or consent agreement. The protection order or consent agreement shall specify the date when the respondent attains the age of nineteen years.

(F)(1) A copy of any protection order, or consent agreement, that is issued, approved, modified, or terminated under this section shall be issued by the court to the petitioner, to the respondent, and to all law enforcement agencies that have jurisdiction to enforce the order or agreement. The court shall direct that a copy of an order be delivered to the respondent on the same day that the order is entered.

(2) Upon the issuance of a protection order or the approval of a consent agreement under this section, the court shall provide the parties to the order or agreement with the following notice orally or by form:

“NOTICE

As a result of this order or consent agreement, it may be unlawful for you to possess or purchase a firearm, including a rifle, pistol, or revolver, or ammunition pursuant to federal law under 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(8) for the duration of this order or consent agreement. If you have any questions whether this law makes it illegal for you to possess or purchase a firearm or ammunition, you should consult an attorney.”

(3) All law enforcement agencies shall establish and maintain an index for the protection orders and the approved consent agreements delivered to the agencies pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section. With respect to each order and consent agreement delivered, each agency shall note on the index the date and time that it received the order or consent agreement.

(4) Regardless of whether the petitioner has registered the order or agreement in the county in which the officer’s agency has jurisdiction pursuant to division (N) of this section, any officer of a law enforcement agency shall enforce a protection order issued or consent agreement approved by any court in this state in accordance with the provisions of the order or agreement, including removing the respondent from the premises, if appropriate.

(G)(1) Any proceeding under this section shall be conducted in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure, except that an order under this section may be obtained with or without bond. An order issued under this section, other than an ex parte order, that grants a protection order or approves a consent agreement, that refuses to grant a protection order or approve a consent agreement that modifies or terminates a protection order or consent agreement, or that refuses to modify or terminate a protection order or consent agreement, is a final, appealable order. The remedies and procedures provided in this section are in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other available civil or criminal remedies.

(2) If as provided in division (G)(1) of this section an order issued under this section, other than an ex parte order, refuses to grant a protection order, the court, on its own motion, shall order that the ex parte order issued under this section and all of the records pertaining to that ex parte order be sealed after either of the following occurs:

(a) No party has exercised the right to appeal pursuant to Rule 4 of the Rules of Appellate Procedure.

(b) All appellate rights have been exhausted.

(H) The filing of proceedings under this section does not excuse a person from filing any report or giving any notice required by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code or by any other law. When a petition under this section alleges domestic violence against minor children, the court shall report the fact, or cause reports to be made, to a county, township, or municipal peace officer under section 2151.421 of the Revised Code.

(I) Any law enforcement agency that investigates a domestic dispute shall provide information to the family or household members involved, or the persons in the dating relationship who are involved, whichever is applicable regarding the relief available under this section and, for family or household members, section 2919.26 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) Subject to divisions (E)(8)(e) and (J)(2) of this section and regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved by a court of another county or a court of another state, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge the petitioner any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing of a petition pursuant to this section or in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

(2) Regardless of whether a protection order is issued or a consent agreement is approved pursuant to this section, the court may assess costs against the respondent in connection with the filing, issuance, registration, modification, enforcement, dismissal, withdrawal, or service of a protection order, consent agreement, or witness subpoena or for obtaining a certified copy of a protection order or consent agreement.

(K)(1) The court shall comply with Chapters 3119., 3121., 3123., and 3125. of the Revised Code when it makes or modifies an order for child support under this section.

(2) If any person required to pay child support under an order made under this section on or after April 15, 1985, or modified under this section on or after December 31, 1986, is found in contempt of court for failure to make support payments under the order, the court that makes the finding, in addition to any other penalty or remedy imposed, shall assess all court costs arising out of the contempt proceeding against the person and require the person to pay any reasonable attorney’s fees of any adverse party, as determined by the court, that arose in relation to the act of contempt.

(L)(1) A person who violates a protection order issued or a consent agreement approved under this section is subject to the following sanctions:

(a) Criminal prosecution or a delinquent child proceeding for a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, if the violation of the protection order or consent agreement constitutes a violation of that section;

(b) Punishment for contempt of court.

(2) The punishment of a person for contempt of court for violation of a protection order issued or a consent agreement approved under this section does not bar criminal prosecution of the person or a delinquent child proceeding concerning the person for a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code. However, a person punished for contempt of court is entitled to credit for the punishment imposed upon conviction of or adjudication as a delinquent child for a violation of that section, and a person convicted of or adjudicated a delinquent child for a violation of that section shall not subsequently be punished for contempt of court arising out of the same activity.

(M) In all stages of a proceeding under this section, a petitioner may be accompanied by a victim advocate.

(N)(1) A petitioner who obtains a protection order or consent agreement under this section or a temporary protection order under section 2919.26 of the Revised Code may provide notice of the issuance or approval of the order or agreement to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county other than the county in which the order is issued or the agreement is approved by registering that order or agreement in the other county pursuant to division (N)(2) of this section and filing a copy of the registered order or registered agreement with a law enforcement agency in the other county in accordance with that division. A person who obtains a protection order issued by a court of another state may provide notice of the issuance of the order to the judicial and law enforcement officials in any county of this state by registering the order in that county pursuant to section 2919.272 of the Revised Code and filing a copy of the registered order with a law enforcement agency in that county.

(2) A petitioner may register a temporary protection order, protection order, or consent agreement in a county other than the county in which the court that issued the order or approved the agreement is located in the following manner:

(a) The petitioner shall obtain a certified copy of the order or agreement from the clerk of the court that issued the order or approved the agreement and present that certified copy to the clerk of the court of common pleas or the clerk of a municipal court or county court in the county in which the order or agreement is to be registered.

(b) Upon accepting the certified copy of the order or agreement for registration, the clerk of the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court shall place an endorsement of registration on the order or agreement and give the petitioner a copy of the order or agreement that bears that proof of registration.

(3) The clerk of each court of common pleas, the clerk of each municipal court, and the clerk of each county court shall maintain a registry of certified copies of temporary protection orders, protection orders, or consent agreements that have been issued or approved by courts in other counties and that have been registered with the clerk.

(O) Nothing in this section prohibits the domestic relations division of a court of common pleas in counties that have a domestic relations division or a court of common pleas in counties that do not have a domestic relations division from designating a minor child as a protected party on a protection order or consent agreement.

Wireless Service Transfers

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3113.451 Order directing transfer

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

After an ex parte or full hearing under section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, a court may issue an order directing a wireless service provider or reseller to transfer the rights to, and billing responsibility for, the wireless service number or numbers in use by the petitioner or any minor children in the care of the petitioner when the petitioner is not the account holder.

Chapter 3119. Child Support Orders

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Calculation of Support Obligation

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

3119.23 Factors considered for deviation

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

The court may consider any of the following factors in determining whether to grant a deviation pursuant to section 3119.22 of the Revised Code:

(A) Special and unusual needs of the child or children, including needs arising from the physical or psychological condition of the child or children;

(B) Other court-ordered payments;

(C) Extended parenting time or extraordinary costs associated with parenting time, including extraordinary travel expenses when exchanging the child or children for parenting time;

(D) The financial resources and the earning ability of the child or children;

(E) The relative financial resources, including the disparity in income between parties or households, other assets, and the needs of each parent;

(F) The obligee’s income, if the obligee’s annual income is equal to or less than one hundred per cent of the federal poverty level;

(G) Benefits that either parent receives from remarriage or sharing living expenses with another person;

(H) The amount of federal, state, and local taxes actually paid or estimated to be paid by a parent or both of the parents;

(I) Significant in-kind contributions from a parent, including, but not limited to, direct payment for lessons, sports equipment, schooling, or clothing;

(J) Extraordinary work-related expenses incurred by either parent;

(K) The standard of living and circumstances of each parent and the standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage continued or had the parents been married;

(L) The educational opportunities that would have been available to the child had the circumstances requiring a child support order not arisen;

(M) The responsibility of each parent for the support of others, including support of a child or children with disabilities who are not subject to the support order;

(N) Post-secondary educational expenses paid for by a parent for the parent’s own child or children, regardless of whether the child or children are emancipated;

(O) Costs incurred or reasonably anticipated to be incurred by the parents in compliance with court-ordered reunification efforts in child abuse, neglect, or dependency cases;

(P) Extraordinary child care costs required for the child or children that exceed the maximum state-wide average cost estimate as described in division (P)(1)(d) of section 3119.05 of the Revised Code, including extraordinary costs associated with caring for a child or children with specialized physical, psychological, or educational needs;

(Q) Any other relevant factor.If the court grants a deviation based on division (Q) of this section, it shall specifically state in the order the facts that are the basis for the deviation.

Rules of Civil Procedure

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Title II. Commencement of Action and Venue; Service of Process; Service and Filing of Pleadings and Other Papers Subsequent to the Original Complaint; Time

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Civ R 3 Commencement of action; venue

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) Commencement. A civil action is commenced by filing a complaint with the court, if service is obtained within one year from such filing upon a named defendant, or upon an incorrectly named defendant whose name is later corrected pursuant to Civ.R. 15(C), or upon a defendant identified by a fictitious name whose name is later corrected pursuant to Civ.R. 15(D).

(B) Limited Appearance by Attorney. An attorney’s role may be limited in scope, as authorized by Prof.Cond.R. 1.2(c), if that scope is specifically described in a “Notice of Limited Appearance” stating that the limited appearance has been authorized by the party for whom the appearance is made, and filed and served in accordance with Civ.R. 5 prior to or at the time of any such appearance. The attorney’s limited appearance terminates without the necessity of leave of court, upon the attorney filing a “Notice of Completion of Limited Appearance” filed and served upon all parties, including the party for whom the appearance was made, in accordance with Civ.R. 5. If there is no objection within ten days of service of this notice, then no entry by the court is necessary for the termination of the limited appearance to take effect.

(C) Venue: Where Proper. Any action may be venued, commenced, and decided in any court in any county. When applied to county and municipal courts, “county,” as used in this rule, shall be construed, where appropriate, as the territorial limits of those courts. Proper venue lies in any one or more of the following counties:

(1) The county in which the defendant resides;

(2) The county in which the defendant has his or her principal place of business;

(3) A county in which the defendant conducted activity that gave rise to the claim for relief;

(4) A county in which a public officer maintains his or her principal office if suit is brought against the officer in the officer’s official capacity;

(5) A county in which the property, or any part of the property, is situated if the subject of the action is real property or tangible personal property;

(6) The county in which all or part of the claim for relief arose; or, if the claim for relief arose upon a river, other watercourse, or a road, that is the boundary of the state, or of two or more counties, in any county bordering on the river, watercourse, or road, and opposite to the place where the claim for relief arose;

(7) In actions described in Civ.R. 4.3, in the county where plaintiff resides;

(8) In an action against an executor, administrator, guardian, or trustee, in the county in which the executor, administrator, guardian, or trustee was appointed;

(9) In actions for divorce, annulment, or legal separation, in the county in which the plaintiff is and has been a resident for at least ninety days immediately preceding the filing of the complaint;

(10) In actions for a civil protection order, in the county in which the petitioner currently or temporarily resides;

(11) In tort actions involving asbestos claims, silicosis claims, or mixed dust disease claims, only in the county in which all of the exposed plaintiffs reside, a county where all of the exposed plaintiffs were exposed to asbestos, silica, or mixed dust, or the county in which the defendant has his or her principal place of business;

(12) If there is no available forum in divisions (C)(1) to (C)(10) of this rule, in the county in which plaintiff resides, has his or her principal place of business, or regularly and systematically conducts business activity;

(13) If there is no available forum in divisions (C)(1) to (C)(11) of this rule:

(a) In a county in which defendant has property or debts owing to the defendant subject to attachment or garnishment;

(b) In a county in which defendant has appointed an agent to receive service of process or in which an agent has been appointed by operation of law.

(D) Change of Venue.

(1) When an action has been commenced in a county other than stated to be proper in division (C) of this rule, upon timely assertion of the defense of improper venue as provided in Civ.R. 12, the court shall transfer the action to a county stated to be proper in division (C) of this rule.

(2) When an action is transferred to a county which is proper, the court may assess costs, including reasonable attorney fees, to the time of transfer against the party who commenced the action in a county other than stated to be proper in division (C) of this rule.

(3) Before entering a default judgment in an action in which the defendant has not appeared, the court, if it finds that the action has been commenced in a county other than stated to be proper in division (C) of this rule, may transfer the action to a county that is proper. The clerk of the court to which the action is transferred shall notify the defendant of the transfer, stating in the notice that the defendant shall have twenty-eight days from the receipt of the notice to answer in the transferred action.

(4) Upon motion of any party or upon its own motion the court may transfer any action to an adjoining county within this state when it appears that a fair and impartial trial cannot be had in the county in which the suit is pending.

(E) Venue: No Proper Forum in Ohio. When a court, upon motion of any party or upon its own motion, determines: (1) that the county in which the action is brought is not a proper forum; (2) that there is no other proper forum for trial within this state; and (3) that there exists a proper forum for trial in another jurisdiction outside this state, the court shall stay the action upon condition that all defendants consent to the jurisdiction, waive venue, and agree that the date of commencement of the action in Ohio shall be the date of commencement for the application of the statute of limitations to the action in that forum in another jurisdiction which the court deems to be the proper forum. If all defendants agree to the conditions, the court shall not dismiss the action, but the action shall be stayed until the court receives notice by affidavit that plaintiff has recommenced the action in the out-of-state forum within sixty days after the effective date of the order staying the original action. If the plaintiff fails to recommence the action in the out-of-state forum within the sixty day period, the court shall dismiss the action without prejudice. If all defendants do not agree to or comply with the conditions, the court shall hear the action.

If the court determines that a proper forum does not exist in another jurisdiction, it shall hear the action.

(F) Venue: Multiple Defendants and Multiple Claims for Relief. In any action, brought by one or more plaintiffs against one or more defendants involving one or more claims for relief, the forum shall be deemed a proper forum, and venue in the forum shall be proper, if the venue is proper as to any one party other than a nominal party, or as to any one claim for relief.

Neither the dismissal of any claim nor of any party except an indispensable party shall affect the jurisdiction of the court over the remaining parties.

(G) Venue: Notice of Pending Litigation; Transfer of Judgments.

(1) When an action affecting the title to or possession of real property or tangible personal property is commenced in a county other than the county in which all of the real property or tangible personal property is situated, the plaintiff shall cause a certified copy of the complaint to be filed with the clerk of the court of common pleas in each county or additional county in which the real property or tangible personal property affected by the action is situated. If the plaintiff fails to file a certified copy of the complaint, third persons will not be charged with notice of the pendency of the action.

To the extent authorized by the laws of the United States, division (G)(1) of this rule also applies to actions, other than proceedings in bankruptcy, affecting title to or possession of real property in this state commenced in a United States District Court whenever the real property is situated wholly or partly in a county other than the county in which the permanent records of the court are kept.

(2) After final judgment, or upon dismissal of the action, the clerk of the court that issued the judgment shall transmit a certified copy of the judgment or dismissal to the clerk of the court of common pleas in each county or additional county in which real or tangible personal property affected by the action is situated.

(3) When the clerk has transmitted a certified copy of the judgment to another county in accordance with division (G)(2) of this rule, and the judgment is later appealed, vacated, or modified, the appellant or the party at whose instance the judgment was vacated or modified must cause a certified copy of the notice of appeal or order of vacation or modification to be filed with the clerk of the court of common pleas of each county or additional county in which the real property or tangible personal property is situated. Unless a certified copy of the notice of appeal or order of vacation or modification is so filed, third persons will not be charged with notice of the appeal, vacation, or modification.

(4) The clerk of the court receiving a certified copy filed or transmitted in accordance with the provisions of division (G) of this rule shall number, index, docket, and file it in the records of the receiving court. The clerk shall index the first certified copy received in connection with a particular action in the indices to the records of actions commenced in the clerk’s own court, but may number, docket, and file it in either the regular records of the court or in a separate set of records. When the clerk subsequently receives a certified copy in connection with that same action, the clerk need not index it, but shall docket and file it in the same set of records under the same case number previously assigned to the action.

(5) When an action affecting title to registered land is commenced in a county other than the county in which all of such land is situated, any certified copy required or permitted by this division (G) of this rule shall be filed with or transmitted to the county recorder, rather than the clerk of the court of common pleas, of each county or additional county in which the land is situated.

(H) Venue: Collateral Attack; Appeal. The provisions of this rule relate to venue and are not jurisdictional. No order, judgment, or decree shall be void or subject to collateral attack solely on the ground that there was improper venue; however, nothing here shall affect the right to appeal an error of court concerning venue.

(I) Definitions. As used in division (C)(11) of this rule:

(1) “Asbestos claim” has the same meaning as in section 2307.91 of the Revised Code;

(2) “Silicosis claim” and “mixed dust disease claim” have the same meaning as in section 2307.84 of the Revised Code;

(3) In reference to an asbestos claim, “tort action” has the same meaning as in section 2307.91 of the Revised Code;

(4) In reference to a silicosis claim or a mixed dust disease claim, “tort action” has the same meaning as in section 2307.84 of the Revised Code.

Ohio Administrative Code

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

5101 Job and Family Services Department

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

5101:2 Social Services Division

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

Chapter 5101:2-1. Children Services Definition of Terms

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

5101:2-1-01 Children services definitions of terms

Updated: 
October 1, 2024

(A) This rule contains the definitions of terms used in Chapters 5101:2-5, 5101:2-7, 5101:2-9, 5101:2-33, 5101:2-36, 5101:2-37, 5101:2-38, 5101:2-39, 5101:2-40, 5101:2-42, 5101:2-44, 5101:2-45, 5101:2-47, 5101:2-48, 5101:2-49, 5101:2-50, 5101:2-52 and 5101:2-53 of the Administrative Code.

(B) Definitions.

(1) “Abandoned child,” pursuant to section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, means a child who is presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the child after that period of ninety days.

(2) “Abused child,” pursuant to section 2151.031 of the Revised Code, includes any child who:

(a) Is the victim of sexual activity as defined under Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code, where such activity would constitute an offense under Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted of the offense in order to find that the child is an abused child.

(b) Is endangered as defined in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code, except that the court need not find that any person has been convicted under section 2919.22 of the Revised Code in order to find that the child is an abused child.

(c) Exhibits evidence of any physical or mental injury or death, inflicted other than by accidental means, or an injury or death which is at variance with the history given of it. Except as provided in this definition, a child exhibiting evidence of corporal punishment or other physical disciplinary measure by a parent, guardian, custodian, person having custody or control, or person in loco parentis of a child is not an abused child under this definition if the measure is not prohibited under section 2919.22 of the Revised Code.

(d) Because of the acts of his parents, guardian, or custodian, suffers physical or mental injury that harms or threatens to harm the child’s health or welfare.

(e) Is subjected to out-of-home care child abuse.

(3) “Adjudicatory hearing” pursuant to section 2151.28 of the Revised Code means a hearing held by the juvenile court to determine whether a child is a juvenile traffic offender, delinquent, unruly, abused, neglected, or dependent or otherwise within the jurisdiction of the court or whether temporary or legal custody should be converted to permanent custody.

(4) “Administrative director” or “administrator” means the person designated by the governing body of an agency who is responsible for the management and administration of the agency.

(5) “Adopted person” is a person whose legal relationship was terminated with his/her biological parents, through permanent surrender or court order, and a new legal relationship has been established with an adoptive family.

(6) “Adopted young adult” is an individual who:

(a) Was in the temporary or permanent custody of a public children services agency.

(b) Was adopted at the age of sixteen or seventeen and attained the age of sixteen before a Title IV-E adoption assistance agreement became effective.

(c) Has attained the age of eighteen.

(d) Has not yet attained the age of twenty-one.

(7) “Adoption” is the creation, by a court of competent jurisdiction, of parental rights and responsibilities between a child and an adult, along with the termination of all parental rights and responsibilities to the child held by any other persons, which have not been previously surrendered or terminated by court order.

(8) “Adoption Disruption” is when the adoption process is stopped at any point before the adoption is legally finalized.

(9) “Adoption Dissolution” is an adoption in which the legal relationship between the adoptive parents and adoptive child is severed, either voluntarily or involuntarily, after the adoption is legally finalized.

(10) “Adoption finalization” is an order of the court issued pursuant to section 3107.14 of the Revised Code terminating all parental rights and responsibilities of a biological or other legal parent and creating the relationship of parent and child between the petitioner and the adopted person.

(11) “Adoptive parent” is a person who adopts a person legally available for adoption.

(12) “Adoptive placement” means the permanent placement of a child for adoption, including any action resulting in a final adoption decree.

(13) “After-hours” are the times other than the normal business day, Monday through Friday, pursuant to policies as set forth by the public children services agency (PCSA). “After-hours” also includes weekends and holidays.

(14) “Aftercare services” are defined as specific individualized community-based trauma informed services that build on treatment gains to promote the safety and well-being of children and families, with the goal of preserving the youth in a supportive family environment. Aftercare services may be part of the discharge plan and added to the “agreement for Title IV-E agencies for the provision of non-placement services” and the “Title IV-E schedule B” rate information.

(15) “Aftercare support” is monthly case management activities performed with or on behalf of a child/family, by the qualified residential treatment program (QRTP) as part of the required discharge plan developed by the permanency team for a minimum of six months from discharge. Aftercare support, as identified in the discharge plan, may be part of the “agreement for Title IV-E agencies and providers for the provision of placement services” or the Title IV-E agencies may use the “agreement for Title IV-E agencies for the provision of non-placement services” and the “Title IV-E schedule B” rate information.

(16) “Agency” means a PCSA, private child placing agency (PCPA) or private non-custodial agency (PNA) certified by ODJFS.

(17) “Agreement for temporary custody” means a voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code and transferring the temporary custody of a child to a PCSA or a PCPA.

(18) “Allegation” means a described set of circumstances which asserts the occurrence of child abuse, neglect, or dependency.

(19) “Alleged child victim” means a child suspected of being or at risk of becoming abused and/or neglected.

(20) “Alleged perpetrator” is the individual suspected of being responsible for the abuse or neglect of a child.

(21) “Anonymous reporter” is an unidentified person making a report of alleged child abuse or neglect.

(22) “Applicant” means a person who has filed an application form with ODJFS to operate an agency regulated by Chapter 5101:2-5 of the Administrative Code or a person who has completed a JFS 01691 “Application for Child Placement” to become a foster caregiver or adoptive parent and submitted the application to an agency pursuant to Chapters 5101:2-5, 5101:2-7 and 5101:2-48 of the Administrative Code. An applicant does not include a person currently certified as a foster caregiver and who is applying to become a specialized foster caregiver with the same agency with which the person is currently affiliated as a certified foster caregiver.

(23) “Approved adoptive home” is a home in which the family has been studied, assessed and approved by the PCSA, PCPA or PNA for the adoptive placement of a child.

(24) “Approved kinship home” is a home of a kinship caregiver that has been assessed by a PCSA or PCPA and has been determined to meet minimum safety requirements established in rule 5101:2-42-18 of the Administrative Code for kinship caregivers to receive placement of kin children.

(25) “Assessment” means comprehensive family assessment and/or risk assessment as defined by this rule.

(26) “Assessor” for the purposes of foster care or adoption means an individual who meets the requirements outlined in section 3107.014 of the Revised Code.

(27) “Assessment/investigation” means a fact-finding process which includes interviews, observations, and other forms of information gathering. Information collected during the assessment/investigation provides data upon which to make a disposition regarding a report of alleged child abuse or neglect.

(28) “Assessment of risk” or “re-assessment of risk” means the ongoing process of classifying a family based upon the family’s characteristics and how likely the family is to maltreat or re-maltreat a child(ren).

(29) “Assessment of safety” or “re-assessment of safety” means the ongoing process of evaluating safety threats, protective capacities, and child vulnerability to determine the appropriate safety response.

(30) “At risk of institutionalization” as used in the definition of a “medically fragile foster home” means that unless the child’s medical condition, and/or functional abilities and/or environment are maintained or improved, the child would require placement in a hospital, skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility for individuals with an intellectual disability, in order to maintain their health and safety.

(31) “Attorney” is a person who has been admitted to the bar by order of the Ohio supreme court.

(32) “Authorization of release form” is the form prescribed by the department of health under division (A)(2) of section 3107.50 of the Revised Code to be used by the birth parent.

(33) “Birth parent” is a biological parent of an adopted person.

(34) “Birth sibling” is a biological sibling of an adopted person.

(35) “Board of directors” or “board of trustees” or “governing body” or “governing board” means the body of persons empowered by an organization’s articles of incorporation, constitution, regulations, or statute to operate an agency and may or may not have proprietary interest in the agency.

(36) “Branch office” means a location of an agency having an address separate from the main or primary location of the agency where any or all of the certified functions of the agency may be conducted.

(37) “Business Day” is any day Monday through Friday excluding the ten federal holidays.

(38) “Calendar day” is any day in the month including weekends and holidays.

(39) “Calendar year” means January first through December thirty-first.

(40) “Candidate for foster care” is a child, who is at imminent risk of removal from home, as evidenced by the Title IV-E agency either pursuing his/her removal from the home or making reasonable efforts to prevent such removal.

(41) “Candidate for prevention services” means a child, who is at imminent risk of removal from home, but is able to remain in the home or with kin as long as state plan specified prevention services for the child, parent, or kin caregiver are being provided by “Center of Excellence” selected service providers.

(42) “Caregiver” is a person providing the direct day-to-day care of a child during his placement in substitute care.

(43) “Caretaker” is a person with whom the child resides or the person responsible for the child’s daily care. This includes, but is not limited to, the parent, guardian, custodian or out-of-home care setting employee.

(44) “Case” means the composition of individuals grouped together for the purpose of providing and/or supervising, and recording PCSA services. The group of individuals are associated to one case reference name and one case number.

(45) “Case decision” means the PCSA’s determination of whether the case should be closed or continued for ongoing PCSA services.

(46) “Case disposition” means the determination of whether or not abuse or neglect has occurred or is occurring and reflects the highest report disposition in the following ranking order from highest to lowest:

(a) Substantiated.

(b) Indicated.

(c) Unsubstantiated.

(d) Family moved - unable to complete assessment/investigation.

(e) Family moved out of county - refer to appropriate PCSA.

(f) Unable to locate.

(47) “Case evaluation” means the analysis of social, environmental and interactional information gathered during the assessment/investigation of child abuse or neglect for the purpose of making a report disposition/resolution, and developing a case plan, when necessary.

(48) “Case management services” are activities performed by the PCSA, PCPA, PNA, or Title IV-E agency for the purpose of providing, recording and supervising services to a child and his parent, guardian, custodian, caretaker or substitute caregiver.

(49) “Case members” means the persons associated to a case for the purpose of provision of child protective services.

(50) “Case plan” means a written document developed by the PCSA, PCPA or Title IV-E agency and the family which identifies strengths of the family, concerns to be resolved and supportive services to be provided which will result in ensuring permanence for the child.

(51) “Case plan for direct placements” means a written document, developed by the PCPA or PNA in conjunction with the family, which identifies strengths of the family, concerns to be resolved and supportive services to be provided which will result in ensuring permanence for the child.

(52) “Case record” means the permanent documentation of the assessment/investigation and the provision of social services to families and children maintained as hard copy files, electronic files, or as a combination of both.

(53) “Casework services” are those services performed or arranged by the PCSA, PCPA or Title IV-E agency to manage the progress, provide supervision and protection of the child and his parent, guardian or custodian.

(54) “Caseworker” means a PCSA, PCPA or PNA staff person who is responsible for provision of protective services or supportive services to the child and his parent, guardian, custodian or substitute caregiver.

(55) “Central registry report” is the report of an incident of alleged child abuse or neglect submitted by the PCSA to ODJFS to determine whether prior reports have been made in other counties concerning the child or other principals of the case.

(56) “Certificate” means a document prescribed by ODJFS issued pursuant to Chapter 5103. of the Revised Code authorizing an agency to perform specific functions or authorizing a foster caregiver to care for children.

(57) “Certified foster home” means a foster home operated by persons holding a certificate in force, issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.

(58) “Certified organization” pursuant to section 5153.01 of the Revised Code means any organization holding a certificate that is in full force and effect, issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.

(59) “Chemical dependency”, pursuant to section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code, means either of the following:

(a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to the extent that the user can no longer control the use of alcohol or endangers the user’s health, safety, or welfare or that of others.

(b) The use of a drug of abuse, as defined in section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, to the extent that the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the drug or endangers the user’s health, safety, or welfare or that of others.

(60) “Chemical restraint” means any substance given to a child to subdue or restrict movement or behavior as punishment or for staff convenience. Chemical restraint is prohibited by ODJFS.

(61) “Child” means any person under eighteen years of age or a person under twenty-one years of age who has a physical or mental impairment; mental or psychological disorder such as an intellectual disability; physiological disorder or condition.

(62) “Child abuse and neglect memorandum of understanding” is a memorandum of understanding which establishes the normal operating procedures and responsibilities to be exercised by each participant regarding alleged child abuse and neglect.

(63) “Child abuse and neglect multidisciplinary teams” are groups organized to provide prevention, identification, diagnosis, treatment and/or consultation on child abuse and neglect.

(64) “Child care staff” means any employee, volunteer or college intern whose duties involve the direct face-to-face care of children as specified on the individual’s job description.

(65) “Child care center” and “center” means any place child care is provided for thirteen or more children at one time or any place that is not the permanent residence of the licensee or administrator in which child care is provided for seven to twelve children at one time. In counting children for the purposes of this definition, any children under six years of age who are related to a licensee, administrator or employee and are on the premises of the center shall be counted.

(66) “Child in treatment foster care” means a child having one or more special or exceptional needs as described in rule 5101:2-47-18 of the Administrative Code that substantially interfere with or limit the child’s functioning in family, school, or community activities.

(67) “Child protection and permanency program” means the administration of a wide range of services identified through the risk assessment process. The program can include the provision of protective services, in-home supportive services, out-of-home care services and adoption services coordinated and delivered on behalf of a child who has come to the attention of the PCSA.

(68) “Child service plan” or “service plan” means a goal-oriented, time-limited, individualized program of action for a child and the family, specific to the child’s placement in a particular facility and separate from the case plan as required by Chapters 5101:2-5 and 5101:2-39 of the Administrative Code, developed by the placement facility in cooperation with the custody holding agency or individual.

(69) “Child stealing” is the illegal removal of a child from the parent, guardian or custodian who has legal custody.

(70) “Child subject of the report” refers to the child identified as the subject requiring an assessment or services in the following types of reports:

(a) Dependency.

(b) Alternative response.

(c) Family in need of services report.

(71) “Children services agency” (CSA) is any agency or organization in another state which has assumed the administration of the child welfare function prescribed in its respective state statute.

(72) “Children’s protective services” (CPS) is a term used to describe a wide range of social services coordinated and delivered on behalf of a child who is at risk, or is being or has been abused or neglected.

(73) “Children’s residential center” (CRC) means a facility in which eleven or more children, including the children of any staff residing at the facility, are given non-secure care and supervision twenty-four hours a day.

(74) “Child vulnerability” means the degree to which a child can avoid or modify the impact of safety threats or risk concerns.

(75) “Collateral source” means a person who provides or documents information concerning child abuse, neglect, or dependency but is not a principal to the case or witness.

(76) “Community education service” is a range of public information activities designed to increase the public’s awareness of child abuse or neglect and to promote appropriate utilization of services.

(77) “Compact state” means a state, U.S. commonwealth, possession or trust territory which is a signatory to the interstate compact on the placement of children.

(78) “Comparable requirement” means a nationally recognized accreditation organization’s standard that equals or exceeds Ohio Administrative Code (OAC) requirements.

(79) “Comprehensive Assessment and Planning Model - Interim Solution” means a strength based and family centered model used to support and document critical child protection decisions regarding child safety, risk of child maltreatment, family functioning, and a family’s ability to resolve concerns.

(80) “Comprehensive family assessment” is an ongoing exchange of information between worker, family and collaterals to determine the strengths of the family and the degree of risk and intervention necessary to keep a child safe. It organizes and categorizes information focusing on the management of future risk or maltreatment and is constantly being revised during the life of the case.

(81) “Control” means the focus of the safety plan, in response to any child in immediate danger of serious harm, which serves to manage immediate safety threats and supplement protective capacities.

(82) “Co-parents” means adult individuals, related or unrelated, living together in the same household and sharing parenting responsibilities.

(83) “Corrective action” is action taken to correct or remediate situations which were identified as being the cause of a child abuse or neglect incident.

(84) “Counseling” includes both of the following:

(a) General counseling services performed by a PCSA or shelter for victims of domestic violence to assist a child, a child’s parents, and a child’s sibling in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.

(b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or person licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional counseling.

(85) “Court-appointed special advocate” means a volunteer guardian ad litem appointed by the court who is responsible for: researching the background of assigned child abuse, neglect and dependency cases; representing the child’s best interests; speaking for the child in all hearings, reviews and other relevant case activities; monitoring the child during the life of the case; and advocating for a safe and permanent home for the child.

(86) “Court order of priority placement” means a court order prepared by an Ohio judge or a judge in another state, which designates that a specific child’s interstate placement shall be made on a priority basis in order to meet the special needs of the child and to expedite the procedures between agencies and states involved in the child’s placement across state lines.

(87) “Courtesy supervision” means a type of family in need of services report in which a request is made by a PCSA or CSA to another PCSA or CSA for assistance in providing protective services to a family who is residing in the jurisdiction of the second PCSA/CSA.

(88) “Credible information” means information worthy of belief.

(89) “Criminal records check” means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal investigation (BCI) pursuant to section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(90) “Crisis services” are services provided to families in crisis situations for the purpose of providing an immediate or temporary solution to the presenting problem.

(91) “Custodian” means a person having legal custody of a child or a PCSA, PCPA, or Title IV-E agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of a child.

(92) “Cultural competency” is a continuous learning process that builds knowledge, awareness, skills and capacity to identify, understand and respect the unique beliefs, values, customs, languages, abilities and traditions of all Ohioans in order to develop policies to promote effective programs and services.

(93) “Danger” means the likelihood of serious harm to a child precipitated by one or more currently active safety threats and arising from insufficient protective capacities.

(94) “Day camp” is a nonfacility-based program in the outdoors providing children with creative, recreational, and educational experiences in group living in a single-site natural environmental area.

(95) “Day treatment services” are services provided for a portion of the day for a child, living at home or in substitute care, who is at risk, or is being or has been abused or neglected, and who manifests emotional, psychological, behavioral, or social problems which cannot be resolved in nonspecialized educational or developmental settings, or in specialized settings such as learning behavioral disabilities classes.

(96) “Delinquent child” pursuant to section 2152.02 of the Revised Code includes any child who does any of the following:

(a) Any child, except a juvenile traffic offender, who violates any law of this state or the United States, or any ordinance of a political subdivision of the state, that would be an offense if committed by an adult;

(b) Any child who violates any lawful order of the court made under this chapter or under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code other than an order issued under section 2151.87 of the Revised Code;

(c) Any child who violates division (C) of section 2907.39, division (A) of section 2923.211, or division (C)(1) or (D) of section 2925.55 of the Revised Code;

(d) Any child who is a habitual truant and who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant;

(e) Any child who is a chronic truant.

(97) “Denial or authorization to release form” is either of the following:

(a) The section of the JFS 01693, “Ohio Law and Adoption Materials” prescribed under division (A)(1)(b) of section 3107.083 of the Revised Code where the birth parent checked the “no” space provided in that section.

(b) The form prescribed under division (A)(1) of section 3107.50 of the Revised Code.

(98) “Dependent child” is as defined pursuant to section 2151.04 of the Revised Code.

(99) “Deserted child” means a child not older than thirty days, whose parent has voluntarily delivered the child to an emergency medical service worker, peace officer, hospital employee or a newborn safety incubator without expressing an intent to return for the child and who, pursuant to sections 2151.3516 and 2151.3517 of the Revised Code, has no apparent signs of abuse or neglect.

(100) “Developmental disability” is as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.

(101) “Diagnostic services” are medical, psychiatric, or psychological services performed by a licensed physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, and persons licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code for the purpose of evaluating an individual’s current physical, emotional, or mental condition.

(102) “Direct placement” means the placement of a child by the parent, guardian or legal custodian of the child, including by court order, with the participation and agreement of an agency, into an out-of-home care setting operated or supervised by the agency, with the parent, guardian or legal custodian retaining legal custody of the child.

(103) “Disabled infant” is a child less than one year of age who has a physical or mental disability which substantially limits or may limit in the future one or more major life activities such as self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, and mobility.

(104) “Dispositional hearing,” pursuant to sections 2151.35 to 2151.355 and 2151.414 of the Revised Code, means a hearing held by the juvenile court to determine what action shall be taken concerning a child who is within the jurisdiction of the court.

(105) “Disruption” is the unplanned interruption of a substitute care placement of a child which requires the transfer of the child to a subsequent substitute care placement setting before the goals of the child’s case plan are achieved.

(106) “Domestic violence” pursuant to section 3113.33 of the Revised Code means attempting to cause or causing bodily injury to a family or household member, or placing a family or household member by threat of force in fear of imminent physical harm.

(107) “Duly authorized” is the established ongoing approval by a juvenile court, granting the PCSA permission to remove a child who is at imminent risk when time does not permit obtaining a court order or assistance from law enforcement.

(108) “Educational/vocational assistance” means counseling and other similar assistance related to educational and vocational training, preparation for a general equivalency diploma (GED) or for higher education, job readiness, job search assistance, and placement program.

(109) “Effective denial of release form” is a denial of release form that has not been rescinded by an authorization of release form pursuant to division (B) of section 3107.46 of the Revised Code.

(110) “Emancipation” is the legal process of custody termination from a PCSA or PCPA on or after a youth attains the age of eighteen.

(111) “Emergency” means a situation where there is reason to believe that a child is threatened or alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent to an extent that the child is in immediate danger of serious harm.

(112) “Emergency caretaker services” are those services provided by a person placed within a child’s own home to act as a temporary caretaker when the child’s own caretaker is unable or unwilling to fulfill the responsibility.

(113) “Emergency medical service worker” means a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or paramedic.

(114) “Emergency shelter” is the short-term crisis placement of any child who is threatened or alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent to an extent that there is imminent risk to the child’s life, physical or mental health, or safety.

(115) “Emergency shelter care facility” is a group home for children, a children’s residential center (CRC), or a portion of a CRC, which is certified to provide temporary emergency nonsecure care for children.

(116) “Employee” means any individual hired for wages by an agency.

(117) “Employment and training services” are services designed to assist individuals in obtaining paid employment. Such services may include, but not be limited to, the use of social, psychological, and vocational diagnostic assessment, training, and placement.

(118) “Environmental management services” are services offered to the child and his family or caretaker to improve physical living conditions and provide emergency funds. Such services may be provided, arranged, or ensured and may include, but not be limited to, housing repair, housing location, exterminating rodents or insects, lead abatement or making available financial assistance for outstanding utility bills.

(119) “Evidence based practice” are those services which aim to provide the most effective care available to improve recipient outcomes by using the best external evidence, professional expertise, and recipient preferences. For the purpose of this definition evidence based practices are those mental health, substance abuse, and parenting skill programs rated by the title IV-E clearinghouse and approved for use by states implementing family first prevention services.

(120) “Exigent circumstances” means an emergency resulting from the conduct, conditions, or surroundings of the children that would endanger their health, welfare, or safety and demands immediate action by the PCSA.

(121) “Ex parte emergency order” is an order issued by a juvenile judge or a designated referee pursuant to section 2151.31 of the Revised Code initiated and obtained by one party where other parties have not had advance notice and the opportunity to be heard prior to the issuance of the order authorizing the taking of a child into custody.

(122) “Family” means a group of people related by blood or circumstances who may rely upon one another for sustenance, support, security, and or socialization.

(123) “Family Case plan” means a written document developed by the PCSA, PCPA or Title IV-E agency and the family which identifies strengths of the family, concerns to be resolved, and supportive services to be provided which will result in ensuring permanence for the child.

(124) “Family foster home” means a foster home that is not a specialized foster home.

(125) “Family in need of services” means an intake category in which a request has been made for a PCSA to provide or Ohio department of job and family services (ODJFS) to facilitate one or more of the following types of services to a family:

(a) Adoption subsidy only.

(b) Child fatalities that are not a result of abuse or neglect.

(c) Courtesy supervision.

(d) Deserted child.

(e) Emancipated youth.

(f) Home evaluations/visitation assessments.

(g) Interstate compact on adoption and medical assistance (ICAMA).

(h) Interstate compact on the placement of children (ICPC).

(i) Permanent surrender.

(j) Post-finalization services.

(k) Postnatal placement services to infants of incarcerated mothers.

(l) Preventive services.

(m) Required non-lead PCSA interviews.

(n) Stranger danger investigations.

(o) Unruly or delinquent youth.

(126) “Family moved - unable to complete assessment/investigation” means the report disposition when a PCSA cannot confirm or deny child abuse or neglect allegations based upon a full assessment/investigation because the family moved after the PCSA made contact with the family but the family’s current whereabouts are unknown or the family now lives out of state and a referral was made to the child services agency where the family currently resides.

(127) “Family preservation center” (FPC) requires a certificate obtained by actively being licensed as either a children’s crisis care facility, or a residential infant care center.

(128) “Family preservation services” means services for children and families designed to help families (including adoptive and extended families) at risk or in crisis, including:

(a) Service programs designed to help children: return to their families from which they have been removed, if determined to be safe and appropriate; or be placed for adoption, or with a guardian; or if adoption or guardianship is determined not to be safe and appropriate for a child, in some other planned permanent living arrangement.

(b) Preplacement preventive services programs, such as intensive family preservation programs, designed to help children at risk of substitute care placement remain safely with their families.

(c) Service programs designed to provide follow-up care to families to whom a child has been returned after a substitute care placement.

(d) Respite care of children to provide temporary relief for parents and other caregivers (including foster caregivers).

(e) Services designed to improve parenting skills (by reinforcing parents’ confidence in their strengths, and helping them to identify where improvement is needed and to obtain assistance in improving those skills) with respect to matters such as child development, family budgeting, coping with stress, health, and nutrition.

(129) “Family Reunification Services” means the services and activities listed in this paragraph that are provided to a child who is removed from his or her home and placed in a foster home or a residential facility or a child who has been returned home and to the parent, guardian or custodian of such a child, but only during the fifteen month period that begins on the date the child returns home. Allowable services and activities include the following:

(a) Individual, group, and family counseling;

(b) Inpatient, residential, or outpatient substance abuse treatment services;

(c) Mental health services;

(d) Assistance to address domestic violence;

(e) Services designed to provide temporary child care and therapeutic services for families, including crisis care facilities;

(f) Peer-to-peer mentoring and support groups for parents and primary caregivers;

(g) Services and activities designed to facilitate access to and visitation of children by parents and siblings; and

(h) Transportation to or from any of the services or activities described in this definition.

(130) “Family support services” for the purposes of utilizing Title IV-B, “subpart 2” means community-based services to promote the safety and well-being of children and families, which are designed to increase the strength and stability of families (including adoptive, foster, and kin), to support and retain foster families so they can provide quality family based settings for children in foster care, to increase parents’ confidence and competence in their parenting abilities, to afford children a safe, stable and supportive family environment, to strengthen parental relationships and promote healthy marriages, and otherwise to enhance child development, including through mentoring.

(131) “Federal fiscal year” means the period of time between October first of one year and September thirtieth of the following year.

(132) “Final decree of adoption” includes an interlocutory order of adoption that has become final.

(133) “Foster care for medically fragile children” means foster caregiver-based treatment services for children whose intensive health care needs cannot be met in their own home. Foster care for medically fragile children focuses rehabilitative services on medically fragile children and their families with the primary location of treatment in a medically fragile foster home.

(134) “Foster caregiver” means a person holding a valid foster home certificate issued by ODJFS.

(135) “Foster care maintenance” is an individual entitlement for financial assistance for board and care of children who meet the eligibility requirements contained in Chapter 5101:2-47 of the Administrative Code, who are in the placement and care of a Title IV-E agency and are in an approved substitute care placement.

(136) “Foster child” means a child placed in a foster home who is not the natural or adopted child or other legal ward of the foster caregiver.

(137) “Foster home” means a private residence in which children are received apart from their parents, guardian, or legal custodian, by an individual reimbursed for providing the children non-secure care, supervision, or training twenty-four hours a day. “Foster home” does not include care provided for a child in the home of a person other than the child’s parent, guardian, or legal custodian while the parent, guardian, or legal custodian is temporarily away. Family foster homes, pre-adoptive infant foster homes and specialized foster homes are types of foster homes.

(138) “Group home” is a public or private facility which provides placement services for children and is licensed, regulated, approved, operated under the direction of, or otherwise certified as a group home by ODJFS, the Ohio department of education, a local board of education, the Ohio department of youth services, the Ohio department of mental health, a county board of mental health, the Ohio department of developmental disabilities, a county board of developmental disabilities, or a political subdivision.

(139) “Group home for children” referred to in Chapter 5101:2-5 of the Administrative Code as “group home” means any facility, public or private, which meets all of the following criteria:

(a) Gives a maximum of ten children, including the children of the operator or any staff who reside in the facility, nonsecure care and supervision twenty-four hours a day for hire, gain, or reward by a person or persons who are unrelated to such children by blood or marriage, or who is not the appointed guardian of such children. Any individual who provides care for children from only a single-family group, placed there by their parents or other relative having custody, shall not be considered as being a group home for children.

(b) Is not certified as a foster home.

(c) Receives or cares for children for two or more consecutive weeks.

(140) “Guardian” means a person, association, or corporation that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child to the extent provided in the court’s order and subject to the residual parental rights of the child’s parents.

(141) “Guardian ad litem” is a guardian appointed by the juvenile court to represent and protect the best interest of an alleged or adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent child.

(142) “Habilitation” is the process by which the staff of the facility or agency assists an individual with a developmental disability to acquire and maintain those life skills which enable the individual to cope more effectively with the demands of the individual’s own person and environment, and in raising the level of the individual’s personal, physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. Habilitation includes, but is not limited to, programs of formal structured education and training.

(143) “Handicapped person” is an individual with a physical or mental disability.

(144) “Harm” (for the purpose of utilizing the “Comprehensive Assessment and Planning Model - Interim Solution”) means the consequence of maltreatment and refers to the nature of the injury or trauma affecting the child.

(145) “Health care facility” is any public or private hospital or institution offering maternity services, or services to premature disabled infants, or services to disabled newborns.

(146) “Health care facility designee” is the person named by the health care facility to act as the contact with the PCSA in all cases when there is an allegation that a disabled infant with life-threatening conditions is a neglected child as defined in division (A) of section 2151.03 of the Revised Code due to the withholding of appropriate nutrition, hydration, medication, or medically indicated treatment.

(147) “Health care facility review committee” is an infant care review committee, an institutional bioethics committee, or another entity established to deal with medical, legal, and ethical dilemmas arising in the care of patients within a health care facility.

(148) “Health care professional” means any physician as defined in this rule or a registered or licensed practical nurse who holds a valid license issued under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.

(149) “Help me grow” early intervention services means developmental services selected in collaboration with the parents of a child, birth through age two, who is eligible for services under part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (November 2011), and designed to meet the developmental needs of the child and the needs of the child’s family to assist appropriately in the child’s development as identified in the individualized family service plan.

(150) “Hire, gain, or reward” means any form of compensation made available to the person providing care and supervision to a child.

(151) “Home evaluation/visitation assessments” means a type of family in need of services intake. A home evaluation means the collection of information requested by a court, other PCSA, or CSA regarding a prospective caregiver and his/her ability to provide care to a child. A visitation assessment means a summary of information regarding visitations between the child(ren) and parent or other individual(s) as ordered by a court or requested by a PCSA.

(152) “Home health aide services” means the personal care and maintenance activities provided to individuals for the purpose of promoting normal standards of health and hygiene.

(153) “Homemaker services” means the professionally directed or supervised simple household maintenance or management services provided by trained homemakers or individuals to families in their own homes.

(154) “Hospital” is as defined in either section 3727.01 or section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(155) “Hospital employee” means any of the following:

(a) A physician who has been granted privileges to practice at the hospital.

(b) A nurse, physician assistant, or nursing assistant employed by the hospital.

(c) An authorized person employed by the hospital who is acting under the direction of a physician that has been granted privileges to practice at the hospital.

(156) “Hotline/answering service” is a communication system which allows child abuse or neglect reports to be received twenty-four hours per day, seven days per week.

(157) “Household” means a private residence including the members of the family living therein and/or unrelated individuals living in the same residence and sharing common living areas.

(158) “Identifying information” as used in adoption is as defined in section 3107.01 of the Revised Code.

(159) “Independent interstate placement” is the act of placing a child, by his parents or non agency legal guardian, across state boundaries into placement for foster care or placement for adoption.

(160) “Independent living arrangement” means any living environment provided by an agency including service programs and activities to assist youth fourteen years of age and older to make the transition from substitute care to adulthood. If a youth who is sixteen or seventeen years of age is placed in an independent living arrangement, the youth shall be placed in housing that is supervised or semi-supervised by an adult per section 2151.82 of the Revised Code.

(161) “Indicated” means the report disposition in which there is circumstantial or other isolated indicators of child abuse or neglect lacking confirmation; or a determination by the caseworker that the child may have been abused or neglected based upon completion of an assessment/investigation.

(162) “Infant” means any child from birth to eighteen months of age.

(163) “Information and referral services” means services which may assist any person in locating or using available and appropriate resources or both.

(164) “Information and/or referral” means an intake category in which information is provided to any person to assist in locating or using available and appropriate resources or both.

(165) “In-home safety plan” is a voluntary safety plan developed with a family in response to an active safety threat. It is designed to enable a child to remain in his or her own home. An in-home safety plan is the least restrictive type of safety plan.

(166) “In-home services” are a range of supportive services provided to children and families in their own homes.

(167) “Initial report” is a report of information supplied to the PCSA by the reporter.

(168) “Intake” means a function of the PCSA through which referrals of: alleged child abuse, neglect, dependency and family in need of services are received, screened, and prioritized; and information and/or referral is categorized.

(169) “Intake category” means each of the following divisions for the classification of referral information:

(a) “Child Abuse/Neglect” means an abused child as defined in this rule or a neglected child as defined in this rule.

(b) “Dependency” means a dependent child as defined in this rule.

(c) Family in need of services.

(d) Information and/or referral.

(170) “Interlocutory order of adoption” is an order of the court issued pursuant to section 3107.14 of the Revised Code which automatically becomes a final decree of adoption upon the date specified in the order.

(171) “Intern” means any individual who on behalf of a college, university, or another organization whether paid or unpaid, is providing services for an agency.

(172) “Interstate children’s protective services referral” is an out-of-state report concerning alleged, indicated, or substantiated child abuse or neglect made or accepted by a PCSA.

(173) “Interstate compact on adoption and medical assistance (ICAMA)” is an interstate compact which formalizes cooperation among party states and provides the standardized procedures for arranging for medical assistance and services for adopted special needs children and their families when there is a state adoption assistance agreement or a federal adoption assistance agreement in effect.

(174) “Interstate compact on the placement of children (ICPC)” is a uniform law enacted by states and jurisdictions of the United States, establishing orderly procedures for the interstate placement of children across state lines and assigning responsibilities for those involved in placing children.

(175) “Interstate placement” is the arrangement made by a sending agency, for the care of a child to be sent from Ohio to another state or from another state into Ohio, which care is to be provided by a foster home, home of a parent or parents, relative home, child-care institution, or adoptive home. This definition does not include any of the following types of placements:

(a) Placements into a facility caring for the mentally, intellectually, or developmentally disabled; a facility that is primarily educational in nature; or a hospital or other medical facility.

(b) The sending or bringing of a child into a receiving state by his parent, stepparent, grandparent, adult brother or sister, adult uncle or aunt, or nonagency legal guardian, and leaving the child with any such relative or nonagency legal guardian in the receiving state.

(c) Placement of a child across state lines by a court as an incident to a divorce.

(d) Placement of a child into Ohio for a period of time not exceeding thirty calendar days, if the sending agency, when the sending agency is other than a parent or non agency legal guardian, has notified the agency in the county where the child will be visiting of the following:

(i) That the child will be visiting.

(ii) The child’s date of arrival.

(iii) The anticipated length of the child’s visit.

(e) Placement of a child who is subject to an agreement for temporary custody.

(176) “Intra-familial assessment/investigation” means an assessment/investigation conducted by a PCSA in response to a child abuse and/or neglect report and includes an alleged perpetrator who is one or more of the following:

(a) Is a member of the alleged child victim’s family.

(b) Has sanctioned or continued access to the alleged child victim.

(c) Is involved in daily or regular care for the alleged child victim, excluding a person responsible for the care of a child in an out-of-home care setting.

(177) “Intrastate children’s protective services referral” is a report concerning alleged, indicated, or substantiated child abuse and neglect made by one Ohio PCSA to another Ohio PCSA for the purpose of requesting the provision of protective services.

(178) “Investigation” is a fact-finding process which includes interviews, observations, and other forms of information gathering. Information collected during the investigation provides data upon which to make a case resolution/disposition regarding a report of alleged child abuse or neglect.

(179) “Items of identification” include a motor vehicle driver’s or commercial driver’s license, an identification card issued under sections 4507.50 to 4507.52 of the Revised Code, a marriage application, a social security card, a credit card, a military identification card, or an employee identification card.

(180) “Kin” or “Kinship caregiver” means the following:

(a) Individuals related by blood or adoption:

(i) Parents, grandparents, including grandparents with the prefix “great,” “great-great,” “grand,” or “great-grand.”

(ii) Siblings.

(iii) Aunts, uncles, nephews, and nieces, including such relative with the prefix “great,” “great-great,” or “great-grand.”

(iv) Cousins and first cousins once removed.

(b) Stepparents and stepsiblings.

(c) Spouses and former spouses of individuals named in paragraph (B)(170)(a) of this rule.

(d) Any non-relative adult the current custodial caretaker or child identifies as having a familiar and long-standing relationship/bond with the child and/or the family which will ensure the child’s social ties.

(181) “Legal custody” means a legal status vesting in the custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the court.

(182) “Licensing authority” is the governmental body responsible for carrying out a department’s licensing and regulatory functions, including monitoring compliance with applicable state laws and departmental rules by agencies, individuals, organizations, facilities, or other service providers licensed or certified by that body.

(183) “Lifebook” is a record of the child’s life which helps identify events in the child’s past, including what happened while in agency care. The record shall include a chronological listing of such events and relationships in the child’s life. Photographs may be used to depict events in the life book.

(184) “Life skills assessment” is an evaluation of the strengths and needs regarding the life and personal skill development of a child in order to determine his current level of independence and the services required to help the child become a self-sufficient adult.

(185) “Life skills services” are a series of developmentally appropriate services or activities that provide an opportunity for a child to gain the skills needed to live a self-sufficient adult life pursuant to rule 5101:2-42-19 of the Administrative Code.

(186) “Life-threatening condition” is any condition in which a disabled infant would die unless medical or corrective surgical treatment is provided.

(187) “Linkage and practice” means coordination with other components of the independent living program.

(188) “Living unit” means one of the following:

(a) A group home.

(b) Individual houses or cottages, with a capacity of no more than twenty children, each of which contain bedrooms, bathrooms, living room or lounge, and may contain a kitchen or designated eating area.

(c) A floor or specific parts of a floor with a capacity of no more than twenty children and which contains bedrooms, bathrooms, living room or lounge, other activity space as required by rule 5101:2-9-26 of the Administrative Code, and may contain a kitchen or designated eating area.

(189) “Managed care” refers to contracted service providers that have full responsibility for case planning and case management. It does not include contracted service providers that provide services while the public children services agency maintains decision making and case management responsibilities for the case or the child.

(190) “Management information system” is the electronic method of arranging client, case and service data for storage and retrieval.

(191) “Mechanical restraint” means any device used to prevent or restrict movement as punishment or for staff convenience. Mechanical restraint is prohibited by ODJFS.

(192) “Medical consultant” is a licensed, board-certified, and practicing pediatrician, or neonatologist.

(193) “Medical diagnosis” is the evaluation of a child examined by a licensed physician to determine if abuse or neglect is medically indicated.

(194) “Medically fragile child” means a person from birth through twenty-one years of age who has intensive health care needs that can be met in a medically fragile foster home.

(195) “Medically fragile foster caregiver” means a person who has been specifically trained and certified pursuant to rules 5101:2-5-20 to 5101:2-5-37 and 5101:2-7-02 to 5101:2-7-17 of the Administrative Code to provide foster care and other services for medically fragile children placed in the caregiver’s medically fragile foster home.

(196) “Medically fragile foster home” means a foster home providing specialized medical services designed to meet the needs of children with intensive health care needs as identified in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code.

(197) “Mental illness” is as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(198) “Mental injury” means any behavioral, cognitive, emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the child’s care.

(199) “Mentally ill person subject to court order” is as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(200) “Mentor” is an individual who is specifically trained and assigned to a child or family to assist the child or family deal with or learn to deal with day-to-day living situations.

(201) “Neglected child” pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code includes any child:

(a) Who is abandoned by the child’s parents, guardian, or custodian.

(b) Who lacks adequate parental care because of the faults or habits of the child’s parents, guardian, or custodian.

(c) Whose parents, guardian, or custodian neglects the child or refuses to provide proper or necessary subsistence, education, medical or surgical care or treatment, or other care necessary for the child’s health, morals, or well being.

(d) Whose parents, guardian, or custodian neglects the child or refuses to provide the special care made necessary by the child’s mental condition.

(e) Whose parents, legal guardian, or custodian have placed or attempted to place the child in violation of sections 5103.16 and 5103.17 of the Revised Code.

(f) Who, because of the omission of the child’s parents, guardian, or custodian, suffers physical or mental injury harming or threatening to harm the child’s health or welfare.

(g) Who is subject to out-of-home care child neglect.

(h) Nothing in Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code shall be construed as subjecting a parent, guardian, or custodian of a child to criminal liability when soley in the practice of religious beliefs, the parent, guardian, or custodian fails to provide adequate medical or surgical care or treatment for the child.

(202) “Nonidentifying information” as used in adoption is as defined in section 3107.60 of the Revised Code.

(203) “Nonrelative” for the purposes of selecting a substitute care setting for the placement of a child means an individual identified by the current custodial caretaker or child as having a familiar and longstanding relationship with the child or the family.

(204) “Nonsecure care, supervision, training” means care, supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or from the facility.

(205) “Organization” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(206) “Out-of-home care” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(207) “Out-of-home care child abuse” pursuant to section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, means any of the following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a child in out-of-home care:

(a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person’s care.

(b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care necessary for a child’s health.

(c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury or pain.

(d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing supervision of a licensed physician.

(e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is at variance with the history given of the injury or death.

(208) “Out-of-home care child neglect,” pursuant to section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, means any of the following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a child in out-of-home care:

(a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical condition, or other special needs of the child.

(b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person.

(c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:

(i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic drugs for the child.

(ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician who prescribed a drug for the child are followed.

(iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the drug.

(d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary for the health or well-being of the child.

(e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without monitoring by staff.

(f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription and nonprescription medication.

(g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.

(209) “Out-of-home care setting” is a detention facility, shelter facility, foster home, pre-finalized adoptive placement, certified foster home, approved foster care, organization, certified organization, child care center, type A family day-care home, type B family day-care home, group home, institution, state institution, residential facility, residential care facility, residential camp, day camp, hospital, medical clinic, children’s residential center, public or nonpublic school, or respite home that is responsible for the care, physical custody, or control of a child.

(210) “Out-of-home safety plan” is a voluntary safety plan developed with a family in response to an active safety threat. It is designed to enable a child to remain in the legal custody of his parent, guardian, or custodian while residing with a relative or kin outside of his or her own home.

(211) “Outreach” means establishment of a system of outreach which would encourage children and families to participate in services; and develop community organizational efforts and ongoing support networks for children and families.

(212) “Parent aide services” are those supportive services provided by a person assigned to families as a role model, and to provide family support for a portion of the twenty-four hour day.

(213) “Parent education” is a teaching process to assist a parent, guardian, or custodian in developing the basic skills necessary to provide adequate care and support to a child in his own home.

(214) “Parental rights” is the authority of a child’s parents to make all decisions regarding the child’s care and control including, but not limited to, the determination of where and with whom the child shall live and the right to protect, train, and discipline the child and provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care.

(215) “Peace officer” means a sheriff, deputy sheriff, constable, police officer of a township or joint township police district, marshal, deputy marshal, municipal police officer, or a state highway patrol trooper.

(216) “Permanent alternative placement” is a planned placement for a child, when it has been determined he cannot return to the child’s own home, including adoption, custody to kin, independent living, or planned permanent living arrangement.

(217) “Permanency plan” shall have the same meaning as the case plan.

(218) “Permanent commitment” is an order of a juvenile court exercising jurisdiction, pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.354, or 2151.414 of the Revised Code, which grants permanent custody of a child to a PCSA or PCPA.

(219) “Permanent custody” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(220) “Person responsible for a child’s care in out-of-home care” means any of the persons named below, but does not include a prospective employee of the department of youth services, or a person responsible for a child’s care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a children’s hospital.

(a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider.

(b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the following: a public or private detention facility; shelter facility; organization; certified organization; child care center; type A family child care home; licensed type B family child care home; group home; institution; state institution; residential facility; residential care facility; residential camp; day camp; hospital; or medical clinic.

(c) Any other person performing a similar function with respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.

(221) “Physical restraint” means a therapeutic holding technique(s) with the intent to minimize or prevent harm when the child has lost control of his or her actions in such a way as to threaten harm to self or others. Physical restraint shall not be used as a planned intervention until after other less restrictive procedures or measures have been explored and found to be inappropriate. At no time shall physical restraint be used as punishment or for staff convenience.

(222) “ Physical impairment” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(223) “Physician” means an individual licensed to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery by the state medical board or by a comparable body in another state.

(224) “Placement for adoption” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(225) “Placement in foster care” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(226) “Plan of safe care” means an arrangement that addresses the immediate safety of the substance exposed and/or substance affected infant, the treatment needs of the infant, the health and substance use disorder treatment needs of the affected family or caregiver. The plan is developed with the parents or other caregivers, as well as the collaborating professional partners and agencies involved in caring for the infant and family. The plan includes but is not limited to the following:

(a) Basic identifying information of the infant and caregiver(s): name, date of birth, and address.

(b) Hospital or medical facility where the infant is being treated: name, address, contact person, physician.

(c) Medical information on the infant: treating medical personnel (doctor, specialists), current diagnosis, prescription medication, therapies or treatment.

(d) Health and substance use of mother, father and/or caregiver: diagnosis, prescribed medications, alcohol or drug treatment provider(s), treatment plan, and contact information of all.

(227) “Plan for practice advancement” is a specific plan required by ODJFS which is developed, implemented and completed by a PCSA to address review findings and areas of improvement to enhance the condition of the child protection system.

(228) “Planned permanent living arrangement” is as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(229) “Post-finalization services” or “post-finalization adoption services” means services provided or arranged by the PCSA, PCPA or PNA to support, maintain and assist an adopted child, adoptive family or birth parent anytime after finalization of an adoption.

(230) “Practitioner of behavior science” means an individual licensed or credentialed by the state of Ohio having within their scope of practice the assessment and treatment of psychological, developmental and behavioral disorders of children.

(231) “Pre-adoptive infant foster home” means a foster home for the care of a child who is in the custody of a PCSA or PCPA pursuant to an agreement entered into under section 5103.15 of the Revised Code regarding a child who was less than six months of age on the date the agreement was executed.

(232) “Pre-adoptive family” means a parent(s) who has signed an adoptive placement agreement for which the placement has not been finalized in court.

(233) “Pre-finalization services” or “pre-finalization adoption services” means services provided or arranged by the PCSA, PCPA or PNA to support and assist a child and adoptive family from the date of adoptive placement until the issuance of a final decree of adoption.

(234) “Pre-finalized adoptive parent” is an adoptive parent with whom a PCSA or PCPA has placed a child for adoption and who has entered into an adoptive placement agreement but for whom an adoption has not been finalized in court.

(235) “Pre-finalized adoptive placement” is the placement of a child in an adoptive home with an adoptive placement agreement in effect, for whom the court has not issued a final decree of adoption.

(236) “Pre-placement preventive services” are those services designed to alleviate family problems which would otherwise result in the child’s removal from the home.

(237) “Preschool age child” means any child from three years of age to five years of age.

(238) “Pre-service training program” means a training program designed to provide caregivers with an understanding of the needs of an abused, neglected, or dependent child, or a child with special needs.

(239) “Prevention Services Plan” means a written document in the “Prevention Services” case category or a “Family Case Plan” in the “Ongoing” case category in SACWIS developed with the family, to provide supportive services to the family, and aid in reducing risk of maltreatment including at least one Ohio IV-E plan recognized “evidenced based practice service” being rendered by a “Center of Excellence” selected provider.

(240) “Preventive services” means a type of family in need of services intake which describes services provided by the PCSA aimed at promoting awareness or preventing child abuse and neglect which have been requested by and provided to children and families who have no current allegations of child abuse, neglect, or dependency.

(241) “Priority placement” means a placement status, based upon the findings by an Ohio court or a court in another state, designating that a specific child’s interstate placement shall be made on a priority basis in order to meet the special needs of the child and to expedite the procedures between agencies and states involved in the child’s placement across state lines.

(242) “Principals of the report” are the alleged child victim or the child subject of the report, the parent or caretaker and the alleged perpetrator or the adult subject of the report.

(243) “Private child placing agency (PCPA)” means any association, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified pursuant to section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for either foster care or adoption.

(244) “Private non-custodial agency (PNA)” means any person, organization, association, or society certified by ODJFS that does not accept temporary or permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in this state, and that does one or more of the following:

(a) Receives and cares for children for two or more consecutive weeks;

(b) Participates in the placement of children in certified foster homes;

(c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a PCSA or PCPA.

(245) “Private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp” is as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code.

(246) “Professional treatment staff” has the same meaning and function as specified in sections 5103.57, 5103.58 and 5103.59 of the Revised Code.

(247) “Prospective employee” means a person who is under final consideration for appointment or employment with a PCSA, a PCPA or a PNA as an administrator, caseworker, child care staff or other person in a position responsible for a child’s care in out-of-home care, including those directly employed by the agency as well as those under contract with another person or entity. “Prospective employee” does not include a prospective foster caregiver.

(248) “Protective capacities” means family strengths or resources that reduce, control, or prevent threats of serious harm from arising or having an unsafe impact on a child.

(249) “Protective day-care services” are services provided for a portion of the twenty-four-hour day for the direct care and protection of children who have been harmed or threatened with harm, or who are at risk of abuse, neglect, or exploitation due to a psychological or social problem, or physical or mental disability of a caretaker parent, or whose health or welfare is otherwise jeopardized by their home environment.

(250) “Protective services” is a term used to describe a wide range of supportive services coordinated and delivered on behalf of children at risk of abuse or neglect.

(251) “Protective services alert” means a notice prepared by a PCSA or CSA which contains allegations that a child may be at risk of abuse or neglect, when the current whereabouts of the child and caretaker are unknown.

(252) “Protective supervision,” pursuant to section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, means an order of disposition pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child’s parent, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child’s own home, subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the child’s parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the court for the protection of the child.

(253) “Public children services agency (PCSA)” means an entity specified in section 5153.02 of the Revised Code that has assumed the powers and duties of the children services function prescribed by Chapter 5153. of the Revised Code for a county.

(254) “Putative father” is as defined in section 3107.01 of the Revised Code.

(255) “Putative father registry” is a registry established and maintained by the ODJFS to allow a putative father to register should he wish to be given notice of a petition to adopt a minor he claims as his child. The registry will allow a mother, agency or attorney to search and either confirm or deny if a child has a registered putative father and thus shall be contacted prior to finalization of the adoption.

(256) “Qualified non-citizen” is a person who at the time of application for or in receipt of Title IV-E foster care maintenance, adoption assistance or independent living services is :

(a) Lawfully admitted for permanent residence under the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), codified at 8 U.S.C. 1255 (amended 12/23/08).

(b) An asylee who has been granted asylum under section 208 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA) (as in effect October 1, 2019); or

(c) A refugee admitted to the United States under section 207 of the INA (as in effect October 1, 2019); or

(d) A parolee allowed into the United States under section 212(d)(5) of the INA (as in effect October 1, 2019) for a period of at least one year; or

(e) A person whose deportation is being withheld under section 243(h) of the INA (as in effect prior to April 1, 1997) or whose removal has been withheld under section 241(b)(3) of the INA (as in effect October 1, 2019); or

(f) A person granted conditional entry pursuant to section 203(a)(7) of the INA (as in effect prior to April 1, 1980); or

(g) A Cuban or Haitian entrant as defined in section 501(e) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980; or

(h) An Amerasian immigrant as defined in Section 584 of the Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and Related Programs Appropriations Act of 1988 (Pub. L. No. 100-202); or

(i) A non-citizen or non-citizen’s child who has been battered or subjected to extreme cruelty in the United States under Section 501 of Pub. L. No. 104-208, under certain circumstances as defined in 8 U.S.C. 1641(c) (as in effect October 1, 2019); or

(j) An Afghan or Iraqi non-citizen granted special immigrant visa status under Section 8120 of the December 19, 2009 Defense Appropriations Bill (Pub. L. No. 111-118) and section 101(a)(27) of the INA (as in effect October 1, 2019).

(257) “Qualified residential treatment program” (QRTP) is a residential program that is accredited and provides an approved trauma-informed approach including treatment consideration for the youth’s safety and developmental needs, with a family driven approach with both the youth and the family included in all aspects of care.

(258) “Quality improvement review” as used in rule 5101:2-33-02 of the Administrative Code means an examination of a PCSA’s performance level on specific outcomes and processes that are to be accomplished through the PCSA’s child protection system and is conducted by ODJFS in participation with the PCSA.

(259) “Reasonable medical judgment” is a medical judgment that would be made by a reasonably prudent physician, knowledgeable about the case and the treatment possibilities with respect to the medical conditions involved.

(260) “Receiving state” is a state into which a child is placed by a sending agency.

(261) “Recommending agency” means a PCSA, PCPA or PNA recommending ODJFS take any of the following actions under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code regarding a foster home:

(a) Issues a certificate;

(b) Denies a certificate;

(c) Renews a certificate;

(d) Denies renewal of a certificate; or,

(e) Revokes a certificate.

(262) “Recruitment” is the action and effort by a PCSA, PCPA, or PNA to provide information alerting the community of the need for foster homes and adoptive homes for children. Recruitment activities by a PCSA, PCPA or PNA must be directed at the general public as well as conducted on an individual basis for specific children.

(263) “Referent/reporter” means a person making a referral of child abuse, neglect, dependency, or family in need of services.

(264) “Referral” means an allegation of child abuse, neglect, or dependency; or information regarding a family in need of services made orally or in writing. It includes, but is not limited to, allegations involving individuals, families, and out-of-home care settings.

(265) “Rehabilitative services” means those services provided to a child to assist the child to reacquire and maintain those life skills that may have been lost due to abuse, neglect, dependency or delinquency that enable the child to cope more effectively with the child’s personal needs and with the child’s environment and in raising the level of the child’s physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. Rehabilitative services may include, but are not limited to, case management, social skills training, activities of daily living, vocational training, medical services, counseling, psychosocial interventions, social psychotherapy, crisis services, treatment planning, and independent living skills training provided for a child in foster care or the child’s family. Rehabilitative services also include any diagnostic assessment conducted to determine the services the child or the child’s family need.

(266) “Relative” means the following:

(a) Individuals related by blood or adoption:

(i) Parents, grandparents, including grandparents with the prefix “great,” “great-great,” “grand,” or “great-grand”;

(ii) Siblings;

(iii) Aunts, uncles, nephews, and nieces, including such relative with the prefix “great,” “great-great,” or “great-grand”;

(iv) First cousins and first cousins once removed.

(b) Stepparents and stepsiblings;

(c) Spouses and former spouses of individuals named in paragraph (B)(266)(a) of this rule.

(267) “Religious coercion” may include, but is not limited to:

(a) Being required to accompany the foster caregiver or other residents of the foster home to religious services, but allowed to sit outside the area where the service actually occurs.

(b) Being given extra chores to perform or being required to read or listen to specific material while others attend religious services.

(c) Being required to view or listen to specific religiously oriented television, video tapes, or music.

(268) “Repeat offender” means a person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed in rules contained in Chapters 5101:2-5, 5101:2-7 and 5101:2-48 of the Administrative Code two or more times in separate criminal actions. Guilty pleas or convictions resulting from or connected with the same act, or from offenses committed at the same time, shall be counted as one conviction or guilty plea.

(269) “Report” means a referral accepted by the PCSA as a result of the screening decision for PCSA assessment/investigation, services, and/or intervention.

(270) “Report disposition” means one of the following determinations of whether a report of abuse or neglect has occurred or is occurring specific to an alleged child victim:

(a) Family moved - unable to complete assessment/investigation.

(b) Family moved out-of-county - refer to appropriate PCSA.

(c) Indicated.

(d) Substantiated.

(e) Unable to locate.

(f) Unsubstantiated.

(271) “Report members” means all of the following individuals: principals of the report; sibling(s) of the alleged child victim(s), including half or step siblings, residing in the home; paramour of alleged child victim’s parent/caretaker; children of the paramour residing in the home; and related or non-related adult(s) residing in the home that have routine responsibility for child care of the alleged child victim(s) and his/her sibling(s).

(272) “Required non-lead PCSA interviews” means a type of family in need of services intake in which interviews of principals and collateral sources are conducted as requested by a PCSA or CSA on behalf of the lead PCSA as required by rules 5101:2-36-03, 5101:2-36-04, and 5101:2-36-09 of the Administrative Code.

(273) “Residential infant care center” (RICC) means a facility that has as its primary purpose the provision of residential services for infants affected by substance use and the preservation of families through infant diversion practices and programs.

(274) “Risk assessment” means a systematic decision making process to determine the safety and protection of the child, used throughout the life of a case.

(275) “Residential camp” means a public or private facility that engages in or accepts the care, physical custody, or control of children during summer months and that is licensed, regulated, approved, operated under the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of health or the American camping association.

(276) “Residential care facility” means an institution, residence, or facility licensed by the department of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a child.

(277) “Residential facility” means a group home, children’s crisis care facility (as defined in rule 5101:2-9-36 of the Administrative Code), children’s residential center, private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp, or residential parenting facility where twenty-four hour child care is provided by child care staff employed or contracted by an agency. A foster home is not a residential facility. “Residential facility”, as used in Chapter 5101:2-36 of the Administrative Code, is a home or facility that is licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a developmental disability resides.

(278) “Residential parenting facility” means a facility in which teenage mothers and their children reside for the purpose of keeping mother and child together, teaching parenting and life skills to the mother, and assisting teenage mothers in obtaining educational or vocational training and skills.

(279) “Residual parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities” are those rights, privileges, and responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child’s religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.

(280) “Resource caregiver” means a foster caregiver or a kinship caregiver.

(281) “Resource family” means a foster home or the kinship caregiver family.

(282) “Respite care,” as used in Chapters 5101:2-5 and 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code, is any alternative care provided for a child placed in a specialized foster home that lasts more than twenty-four consecutive hours when the plan is to return the child to the same specialized foster home at the end of the period of respite care.

(283) “Respite care services” are services designed to provide temporary relief of child-caring functions including, but not limited to, crisis nurseries, day treatment, and volunteers or paid individuals who provide such services within the home. This service may be provided to a child placed in a foster home or with a relative as well as for a child in his own home.

(284) “Respite home” is a home managed by a respite family receiving funds from and approved to provide respite care services by the department of developmental disabilities.

(285) “Safe child” means the safety response when there are no immediate threats of serious harm present or the protective capacities of the family can manage any identified threats to a child.

(286) “Safety plan” means a specific and concrete strategy for controlling threats of serious harm to a child(ren) or supplementing protective capacities, which is implemented immediately when a family’s protective capacities are not sufficient to manage immediate and serious threats of harm.

(287) “Safety response” means the determination of whether a child is safe or whether a PCSA shall implement a safety plan to control any identified safety threat. The types of safety responses are safe, in-home safety plan, out-of-home safety plan, or legally authorized out-of-home placement.

(288) “Safety threat” means an act or condition that has the capacity to seriously harm any child.

(289) “Screening” means the process of receiving and recording information from a referent to determine one or both of the following:

(a) Whether the information provided should be categorized as a referral of child abuse and/or neglect, dependency, or family in need of services; or as an information and/or referral intake.

(b) Whether the information categorized as a referral of child abuse and/or neglect, dependency, or family in need of services should be screened in or screened out.

(290) “Screening decision” means the outcome of the screening process.

(291) “Screened in” means the PCSA has accepted referral information as a report and assignment for assessment/investigation.

(292) “Screened out” means the PCSA has not accepted the referral for assessment/investigation.

(293) “Self-esteem/self confidence development” means individual and group counseling skills, workshops and conferences for improved self-esteem and self confidence, and interpersonal, and social skills training and development.

(294) “Sending agency” is a PCSA, PCPA, or any agency, officer or employee of the state or local government, or any court or person, voluntary agency, or other entity which sends or brings a child, or causes a child to be sent or brought, into another state.

(295) “Serious harm” means the actual or threatened consequence of an active safety threat that may be significantly affected by a child’s degree of vulnerability and includes one or more of the following:

(a) Is life-threatening.

(b) Substantively retards the child’s mental health or development.

(c) Produces substantial physical suffering, disfigurement or disability, whether temporary or permanent.

(296) “Sibling” means a legal relationship exists between two or more children who share at least one parent by birth, marriage, or adoption.

(297) “Specialized assessment/investigation means an assessment/investigation conducted by the PCSA in response to a child abuse or neglect report and includes an alleged perpetrator who meets one or more of the following:

(a) Is responsible for the alleged child victim’s care in an out-of-home care setting as defined in this rule.

(b) Is a person responsible for the alleged child victim’s care in out-of-home care as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.

(c) Has access to the alleged child victim by virtue of his/her employment by or affiliation with an institution.

(298) “Shelter” means the temporary care of children in physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or disposition.

(299) “Skilled level of care” as used in the definition of a “medically fragile foster home” has the same meaning as described in rules 5160-3-05 and 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code.

(300) “Special needs child” for the purposes of the state adoption subsidy program is a child who, prior to substitute care or adoptive placement, has at least one of the following needs or circumstances that may be a barrier to placement or adoption or a barrier to a child being sustained in a substitute care placement or adoptive home without financial assistance because the child:

(a) Is in a sibling group which should be placed together;

(b) Is a member of a minority or ethnic group;

(c) Is six years of age or older;

(d) Has remained in the permanent custody of a PCSA or PCPA for more than one year;

(e) Has a medical condition, physical impairment, intellectual disability or developmental disability;

(f) Has an emotional disturbance or behavioral problem;

(g) Has a social or medical history or the background of the child’s biological family has a social or medical history which may place the child at risk of acquiring a medical condition, a physical, mental or developmental disability or an emotional disorder;

(h) Has been in the home of his/her prospective adoptive parents as a foster child for at least one year and would experience severe separation and loss if placed in another setting due to his/her significant emotional ties with these foster parents as determined and documented by a qualified mental health professional;

(i) Has experienced previous adoption disruption or multiple placements.

(301) “Special service state adoption subsidy” is financial assistance directly related to the child’s special needs at the time of the subsidy agreement, including any identified or anticipated risk of a special need. Payments may be made to the adoptive parent or to the service provider. Special service subsidies include, but are not limited to, payments for:

(a) Medical and surgical costs as determined by a licensed physician. If the child has a medical problem needing treatment, investigation shall be made of the adoptive family’s medical insurance, medicaid and other resources to determine whether the costs of treatment could be covered by these resources. If not, the subsidy could provide the necessary funds.

(b) Psychiatric, psychological, or counseling costs as determined by a licensed psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, licensed professional counselor, licensed independent social worker or a licensed independent marriage and family therapist. This may also include counseling sessions for the child or adoptive family to help integrate the child into the adoptive family. If the child has a psychiatric or psychological condition needing treatment, investigation shall be made of the adoptive parent’s medical insurance, medicaid and other resources to determine whether the costs of treatment could be covered by these resources. If not, the subsidy could provide the necessary funds.

(c) Other special service costs as documented by the appropriate professional or determined as necessary by the PCSA. This may include, but not be limited to, remedial education, rehabilitation training, corrective dental treatment, speech and hearing therapy, wheelchair, braces, crutches, prostheses, child care, transportation and any other expenses related to the care and treatment of the child when not available from other funding sources. These could also include other costs incidental to the care of the child.

(302) “Specialized foster home” means a medically fragile foster home or a treatment foster home.

(303) “Spousal abuse” is violence between two caretakers regardless of marital status, and reflects the presence of domestic violence.

(304) “Staff secure facility” means a residential setting for adjudicated offenders that provides treatment in a safe environment with an atmosphere of mutual respect between staff and residents without traditional obstacles to prevent escape. Traditional barriers include locked doors, barbed wire, electric gates. In a staff secure facility staff become the deterrent to escape by having an ODJFS approved plan for positioning themselves in such a way that residents are prevented from escaping.

(305) “State adoption maintenance subsidy” is a state-funded adoption program intended to make permanent homes possible for children with special needs. Through the subsidized adoption program, special service and maintenance subsidy payments are made available to assist an adoptive parent who is otherwise qualified to adopt except for financial need.

(306) “State fiscal year” means the period of time between July first of one year and June thirtieth of the following year.

(307) “State institution” is a facility established by, or operated pursuant to the authority of, the general assembly, for the care of delinquent children, blind children, deaf children, children with a mental illness, children with an intellectual disability, or children with a developmental disability, and that is under the management, control, or supervision of the division of correctional services of the department of youth services, the state board of education, the state department of mental health and addiction services, the state department of developmental disabilities, or a political subdivision.

(308) “Stranger danger report” is a report to the PCSA alleging a criminal act against a child of assault or sexual activity as defined under Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code if the alleged perpetrator:

(a) Is not a member of the alleged child victim’s family.

(b) Has no sanctioned or continued access to the alleged child victim.

(c) Has no relationship with the alleged child victim.

(d) Is not involved in daily or regular out-of-home care for the alleged child victim.

(e) Is a stranger, previously unknown to the alleged child victim and the alleged child victim’s family.

(309) “Subcontractor” means any person who by a legal agreement with an agency provides services for an agency.

(310) “Substance affected infant” means a child under the age of twelve months who has any detectable physical, developmental, cognitive, or emotional delay or harm which is associated with a parent, guardian, or custodian’s abuse of a legal or illegal substance; excluding the use of a substance by the parent, guardian, or custodian as prescribed.

(311) “Substance exposed infant” means a child under the age of twelve months who has been subjected to legal or illegal substance abuse while in utero.

(312) “Substance Use Disorder (SUD) Residential Facility” means a family-based residential treatment facility for adults with substance abuse licensed by Ohio mental health and addiction services that allows the placement of child(ren) with a parent. A SUD residential facility shall meet the following programmatic criteria:

(a) The recommendation for the placement is specified in the child’s case plan before the placement.

(b) The SUD residential facility provides, as part of the treatment for substance abuse, services regarding parenting skills training, parent education, individual counseling, and family counseling.

(c) The services are provided under an organizational structure and treatment framework with recognized principles of a trauma-informed approach and trauma-specific interventions to address the consequences of trauma and facilitate healing.

(313) “Substantiated report” means the report disposition in which there is an admission of child abuse or neglect by the person(s) responsible; an adjudication of child abuse or neglect; or other forms of confirmation deemed valid by the PCSA.

(314) “Substitute care” is the care provided for a child apart from his parent or guardian, while the child’s custody is held by a PCSA or PCPA.

(315) “Substitute caregiver” means an individual providing care for a child who is in the custody of the PCSA or PCPA including, a relative other than the child’s parents, a nonrelative having a familiar and longstanding relationship with the child or the family, a foster parent or pre-adoptive parent, and a staff person of a group home or residential facility who is providing care for the child.

(316) “Supervising agency” is the agency providing pre-finalization services to an adoptive family or adoptive child during the period prior to an adoption finalization.

(317) “Supervisor” as the term is used in rules contained in Chapter 5101:2-33 of the Administrative Code means a person who is employed by the PCSA to oversee, direct or manage one or more workers employed by the agency in a social services capacity.

(318) “Supplemental plan” means a written plan for a child outlining the agency’s plan to locate a permanent placement for the child and which may be developed concurrently with the case plan.

(319) “Support system” means the involvement of relatives, mentors, and caregivers in the development of independent living skills; and training children or families in decision making, planning, and time management.

(320) “Supportive services” are services provided or arranged to protect, strengthen, or assist children and families or caretakers. Supportive services may include family preservation services, family support services, family reunification services, or adoption promotional and support services.

(321) “Temporary certificate” means a certificate issued as a sanction by ODJFS to a PCSA, PCPA, PNA pursuant to section 5103.03 of the Revised Code for a period of less than one year.

(322) “Temporary custody” means legal custody of a child who is removed from the child’s home, which may be terminated at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the person who executed the agreement.

(323) “Temporary emergency care” is physical care and meeting the emotional needs of a child in a facility established to receive children at any time of day, twenty-four hours per day.

(324) “Therapeutic counseling” means, pursuant to section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, psychiatric or psychological services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or persons licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.

(325) “Therapeutic services” are medical, psychiatric or psychological services performed by licensed or certified physicians, psychiatrists, psychologists, and persons licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code for the purpose of correcting or alleviating physical, mental, or emotional illnesses, or disorders.

(326) “Third party” means the requirement that a PCSA request the assistance of law enforcement or another PCSA or both when conducting an assessment/investigation due to the potential conflict of interest a PCSA may have assessing/investigating an entity.

(327) “Title IV-E Adoption assistance” is a federally funded program in which a public children services agency (PCSA) may provide financial assistance and medical coverage to special needs children who meet the eligibility requirements of 42 U.S.C 673 (amended 2/8/06 as if enacted 10/1/05) and have been placed for adoption or are living with parents who have legally adopted them.

(328) “Title IV-E agency” means a public children services agency or a public entity with whom the Ohio department of job and family services has a Title IV-E subgrant agreement in effect.

(329) “Toddler” means any child from eighteen months of age to thirty-six months of age.

(330) “Training” means the training and staff development activities which directly or indirectly benefit or assist agency staff in the delivery of services.

(331) “Training episode” means a class, session or workshop for foster caregivers of two consecutive hours duration or more, as contained in an agency’s approved foster caregiver pre-placement and continuing training proposal.

(332) “Transfer” means an agreement between two recommending agencies and a foster or adoptive parent for transferring the responsibility for future utilization, supervision and recertification or updates of a homestudy from one agency to another.

(333) “Transportation” means arranging for or providing transportation to and from needed services, resources and facilities.

(334) “Treatment foster care” means foster caregiver-based treatment services for children whose special or exceptional needs cannot be met in their own homes. Treatment foster care focuses on providing rehabilitative services to children with special or exceptional needs and their families with the primary location of treatment being in the treatment foster home.

(335) “Treatment foster caregiver” means a person who has been specifically trained and certified pursuant to rules 5101:2-5-20 to 5101:2-5-35 and 5101:2-7-02 to 5101:2-7-16 of the Administrative Code to provide treatment to children with special or exceptional needs placed in the treatment foster home.

(336) “Treatment foster home” means a foster home that incorporates special rehabilitative services designed to treat the specific needs of the children received in the foster home and that receives and cares for children who are emotionally or behaviorally disturbed, chemically dependent, with an intellectual disability, or developmentally disabled, or who otherwise have exceptional needs.

(337) “Treatment team” means the group of individuals who formulate, assess, monitor and revise, as needed, the child’s service plan. The treatment team shall include, but is not limited to:

(a) A treatment team leader;

(b) Case managers or therapists from agencies providing social, medical or mental health services to the child and his family;

(c) The treatment or medically fragile foster caregiver(s);

(d) A representative(s) of the agency holding custody of the child, including, for any child who has attained the age of fourteen, a representative of the custody-holding agency’s independent living program;

(e) A representative of the educational system providing educational services to the child;

(f) The child, according to his age and functioning level;

(g) Parent(s) of the child, when reunification with the parent(s) is the plan for the child, or the child’s guardian; and

(h) The child’s guardian ad litem or court appointed special advocate, if one has been appointed to represent the child.

(338) “Treatment team leader” means the member(s) of the treatment team with primary responsibility for day-to-day leadership of the treatment team and for preparation of the written service plan and any revisions thereto. The treatment team leader shall be a professional treatment staff member, as defined in paragraph (B) (334) of this rule, of the treatment or medically fragile foster care program or the child’s treatment or medically fragile foster caregiver if the foster caregiver is appropriately licensed/certified to perform the functions of a treatment team leader. Nothing in this definition shall prohibit a treatment team from being co-led by more than one individual.

(339) “Type A home” means a permanent residence of the administrator in which child care or publicly funded child care is provided for seven to twelve children at one time or a permanent residence of the administrator in which child care is provided for four to twelve children at one time if four or more children at one time are under two years of age. In counting children for the purposes of this paragraph, any children under six years of age who are related to a licensee, administrator, or employee and who are on the premises of the type A home shall be counted. “Type A home” does not include a residence in which the needs of children are administered to, if all of the children whose needs are being administered to are siblings of the same immediate family and the residence is the home of the siblings. “Type A home” does not include a child day camp.

(340) “Type B home,” means a permanent residence of the provider in which child care services are provided for one to six children at one time and in which no more than three children may be under two years of age at one time.

(a) In counting children for the purposes of this rule, any children under six years of age who are related to the provider and who are on the premises of the type B home shall be counted. Children six years of age or older who are related to the provider and who are on the premises of the “type B home” shall not be included in this count.

(b) A “type B home” also includes a home which is the permanent residence of both the provider and the parent.

(341) “Unable to locate” means the report disposition in which the assessment/investigation was not completed due to the inability to make contact with the family.

(342) “Unaccompanied refugee minor” is a person who has not yet reached eighteen years of age, or such higher age as the ODJFS has provided for in its child welfare plan under Title IV-B of the social security act, and who entered the United States unaccompanied by and not destined to:

(a) A parent; or

(b) A close non parental adult relative who is willing and able to care for the minor; or

(c) An adult with a court claim to custody of the minor; and

(d) Who has no parent(s) in the United States.

(343) “Universal precautions” means an approach to infection control in which all human blood and certain human body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for human immunodeficiency virus, hepatitis b virus and other blood borne pathogens.

(344) “Unsubstantiated report” means the report disposition in which the assessment/ investigation determined no occurrence of child abuse or neglect.

(345) “Variance” means a discretionary action of ODJFS to permanently suspend all or part of a rule imposed on an agency by the application of Chapter 5101:2-5 or 5101:2-9 of the Administrative Code, or on a foster caregiver by the application of Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code.

(346) “Volunteer” means any individual not being paid but providing services for an agency.

(347) “Volunteer services” are those services (e.g., transportation) performed by a person of his own free will and without monetary gain or compensation.

(348) “Waiting child” is a child in the permanent custody of a PCSA with the goal of adoption that is not currently in a pre-finalized adoptive placement or involved in an appeal.

(349) “Waiver” means a discretionary action of ODJFS to temporarily suspend, pursuant to rule 5101:2-5-18 of the Administrative Code, all or part of a rule imposed on an agency by the application of Chapter 5101:2-5 or 5101:2-9 of the Administrative Code, or on a foster caregiver by the application of Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code in order to give the agency or foster caregiver time to come into compliance.

(350) “Withholding of medically indicated treatment” is the failure to respond to the disabled infant’s life-threatening conditions by providing treatment (including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication) which, in the attending physician’s reasonable medical judgment, will most likely be effective in ameliorating or correcting all such conditions. Withholding medically indicated treatment may constitute neglect of a child. This term does not include the failure to provide treatment (other than appropriate nutrition, hydration, or medication) to a disabled infant when, in the attending physician’s reasonable medical judgment, any of the following circumstances apply:

(a) The disabled infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose.

(b) The provisions of such treatment would merely prolong dying, or not be effective in ameliorating or correcting all of the disabled infant’s life-threatening conditions, or otherwise be futile in terms of survival of the disabled infant.

(c) The provisions of such treatment would be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the disabled infant and the treatment itself under such circumstances would be inhumane.

(351) “Witness” means a person who has direct knowledge of the alleged abuse and/or neglect of a child.

(352) “Working day” means the regular days on which work is performed by the PCSA generally seen as Monday through Friday excluding legal holidays, or the day the holiday is observed.